Equality in the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for integrals

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for integrals, specifically in the context of integrable functions f and g on the interval [a,b]. The original poster references a problem from Spivak's Calculus on Manifolds and is exploring the conditions under which equality holds in the inequality.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to prove the inequality using Riemann sums and the standard Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, while also considering the implications of the hint provided in the problem statement. They explore two cases regarding the integral of the squared difference between f and a scalar multiple of g.
  • Some participants question whether there is a simpler method to prove the inequality and suggest alternative approaches, including using the discriminant of a quadratic equation.
  • Others suggest leveraging a standard proof of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality by manipulating inner products and choosing specific values for the scalar.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing various approaches and questioning the complexity of the original poster's method. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of the discriminant argument and standard proofs, but no consensus has been reached on a singular method.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the constraints of the problem as posed in the homework assignment, including the requirement to prove the conditions for equality in the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. There is an emphasis on exploring different mathematical reasoning without arriving at a definitive solution.

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Homework Statement


Regarding problem 1-6 in Spivak's Calculus on Manifolds: Let f and g be integrable on [a,b]. Prove that |\int_a^b fg| ≤ (\int_a^b f^2)^\frac{1}{2}(\int_a^b g^2)^\frac{1}{2}. Hint: Consider separately the cases 0=\int_a^b (f-λg)^2 for some λ\inℝ and 0 < \int_a^b (f-λg)^2 for all λ\inℝ

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution


I can prove the inequality using Riemann sums and the regular Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, however I didn't see a way to prove that equality holds iff 0=\int_a^b (f-λg)^2 for some λ\inℝ using this method. Using the hint gave me a bit of trouble, I think I'm doing something wrong/there's an easier way to do it:

Case 1: 0<\int_a^b (f-λg)^2 for all λ\inℝ
\Rightarrow 0<\int_a^b f^2 - 2λ\int_a^b fg + λ^2\int_a^b g^2 for all λ\inℝ
this is a quadratic equation in λ with no real roots, hence the discriminant is < 0:
(2\int_a^b fg)^2 - 4\int_a^b g^2\int_a^b f^2&lt;0 \Rightarrow |\int_a^b fg|&lt;(\int_a^b f^2)^\frac{1}{2}(\int_a^b g^2)^\frac{1}{2}
\squareCase 2: 0=\int_a^b (f-λg)^2 for some λ\inℝ
\Rightarrow 0=\int_a^b f^2 - 2λ\int_a^b fg + λ^2\int_a^b g^2
This is a quadratic equation in λ (otherwise we can show easily that the result holds) with a real root, hence the discriminant is ≥ 0 and we proceed as before to get:
(\int_a^b fg)^2≥(\int_a^b f^2)(\int_a^b g^2)

We prove this case by contradiction. Suppose that (\int_a^b fg)^2&gt;(\int_a^b f^2)(\int_a^b g^2) such that (\int_a^b fg)^2=(\int_a^b f^2)(\int_a^b g^2) + δ for some δ>0. Then there are exactly two roots λ1 and λ2. It follows that at least one of \int_a^\frac{a+b}{2} (f-λg)^2 or \int_\frac{a+b}{2}^b (f-λg)^2 has only λ1 and λ2 as roots. Suppose that it is \int_\frac{a+b}{2}^b (f-λg)^2, with the argument being similar otherwise.

Consider the function k_ε = \left\{\begin{matrix}<br /> g&amp; &amp;on\: [a,\frac{a+b}{2}) \\ <br /> g+ε&amp; &amp; on\: [\frac{a+b}{2},b]<br /> \end{matrix}\right.

We prove by contradiction that 0 &lt; \int_a^b (f-λk_ε)^2 for all λ\inℝ:
Suppose 0 = \int_a^b (f-λk_ε)^2 for some λ\inℝ. This has at most 2 roots. We have:
\int_a^b (f-λk_ε)^2 = \int_a^\frac{a+b}{2} (f-λg)^2 + \int_\frac{a+b}{2}^b (f-λ(g+ε))^2.
Such that any roots must be λ1 or λ2. Without loss of generality, suppose λ1 is a root. Then:
0 = \int_a^b (f-λ_1k_ε)^2 = \int_a^\frac{a+b}{2} (f-λ_1g)^2 + \int_\frac{a+b}{2}^b (f-λ_1(g+ε))^2 (the first term is 0) = \int_\frac{a+b}{2}^b (f-λ_1g)^2 - 2λ_1ε\int_\frac{a+b}{2}^b (f-λ_1g) + \int_\frac{a+b}{2}^b (λ_1ε)^2 (the first two terms are 0) =\int_\frac{a+b}{2}^b (λ_1ε)^2
\Rightarrow λ_1 = 0 \Rightarrow \int_a^b f^2 = 0 \Rightarrow \int_a^b fg = 0 \Rightarrow (\int_a^b fg)^2 = (\int_a^b f^2)(\int_a^b g^2) a contradiction!

So 0 &lt; \int_a^b (f-λk_ε)^2 for all λ\inℝ \Rightarrow (\int_a^b fk_ε)^2&lt;(\int_a^b f^2)(\int_a^b k_ε^2) by case 1. We rewrite this to get:
(\int_a^b fg)^2 &lt; (\int_a^b f^2)(\int_a^b g^2) + ε*N + ε^2*M for some N,M\inℝ
But we can take ε = min(1,\frac{δ}{2|N|},\frac{δ}{2|M|}) such that εN≤ε|N|≤\frac{1}{2}δ and ε^2M≤ε^2|M|≤ε|M|≤\frac{1}{2}δ
But then (\int_a^b fg)^2&lt;(\int_a^b f^2)(\int_a^b g^2) + δ
a contradiction! \blacksquare
Is there a simpler way to do this?
 
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Oh wait.. once I prove the inequality using Riemann sums i'd just have to use the discriminant argument to show that equality holds in the second case!
 
Axiomer said:
Is there a simpler way to do this?
Maybe you can prove it like standard proof of Cauchy–Schwarz inequality:

0 \le &lt;x+\lambda y, x+\lambda y&gt; = &lt;x,x&gt; + 2\lambda &lt;x,y&gt; + \lambda^2 &lt;y,y&gt;, and then choosing that \lambda = -\dfrac{&lt;x,y&gt;}{&lt;y,y&gt;} you will get |&lt;x,y&gt;|^2 \le &lt;x,x&gt; &lt;y,y&gt;

So, maybe, but maybe, you can use \lambda = -\dfrac{&lt;f,g&gt;}{&lt;g,g&gt;} = -\dfrac{\int_a^b fg}{\int_a^b g^2}
 
Yes, that definitely works too. Thanks!
 

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