Fierz Identity Question: Understanding the Transformation and Matrices

  • Thread starter Thread starter Einj
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Identity
Einj
Messages
464
Reaction score
59
Hi everyone, I have a doubt on Fierz identities. If we define the following quantities: S=1,\; V=\gamma_\mu,\; T=\sigma_{\mu\nu},\; A=\gamma_\mu\gamma_5,\;P=\gamma_5, then we have the identity:

$$
(\Gamma_i)_{\alpha\beta}(\Gamma_i)_{\gamma\xi}=\sum_j F_{ij}(\Gamma_j)_{\alpha\xi}(\Gamma_j)_{\gamma\beta},
$$
where \Gamma_i are the matrices define before. Moreover:
$$
F_{ij}=\frac{1}{8}\left(\begin{array}{ccccc}
2 & 2 & 1 & -2 & -2 \\
8&-4&0&-4&-8 \\
24&0&-4&0&24 \\
-8&-4&0&-4&8 \\
2&-2&1&2&2
\end{array}\right)
$$
Therefore, if we take the VV+AA combination it turns out that VV+AA=-VV-AA with exchanged indices.

However I usually read the Fierz transformation to be:
$$
(\psi_1\Gamma P_L\psi_2)(\psi_3\Gamma P_L\psi_4)=(\psi_1\Gamma P_L\psi_4)(\psi_3\Gamma P_L\psi_2).
$$

Without any minus sign. Does anyone knows why?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Einj said:
Hi everyone, I have a doubt on Fierz identities. If we define the following quantities: S=1,\; V=\gamma_\mu,\; T=\sigma_{\mu\nu},\; A=\gamma_\mu\gamma_5,\;P=\gamma_5, then we have the identity:

$$
(\Gamma_i)_{\alpha\beta}(\Gamma_i)_{\gamma\xi}=\sum_j F_{ij}(\Gamma_j)_{\alpha\xi}(\Gamma_j)_{\gamma\beta},
$$
where \Gamma_i are the matrices define before. Moreover:
$$
F_{ij}=\frac{1}{8}\left(\begin{array}{ccccc}
2 & 2 & 1 & -2 & -2 \\
8&-4&0&-4&-8 \\
24&0&-4&0&24 \\
-8&-4&0&-4&8 \\
2&-2&1&2&2
\end{array}\right)
$$
Therefore, if we take the VV+AA combination it turns out that VV+AA=-VV-AA with exchanged indices.
However I usually read the Fierz transformation to be:
$$
(\psi_1\Gamma P_L\psi_2)(\psi_3\Gamma P_L\psi_4)=(\psi_1\Gamma P_L\psi_4)(\psi_3\Gamma P_L\psi_2).
$$
Without any minus sign. Does anyone knows why?
Because the ψ's anticommute? I think it matters whether you just give the relation between matrices, as Wikipedia does, or include the ψ's. Both of these references give the table for Fij including the ψ's, with the opposite sign.
http://hep-www.px.tsukuba.ac.jp/~yuji/mdoc/fierzTrans.pdf
http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/9783527648887.app5/pdf
 
  • Like
Likes 1 person
I think you are right. Once we write the identity for the matrices then we need to switch the two field and this should give an extra minus sign.
 
Toponium is a hadron which is the bound state of a valance top quark and a valance antitop quark. Oversimplified presentations often state that top quarks don't form hadrons, because they decay to bottom quarks extremely rapidly after they are created, leaving no time to form a hadron. And, the vast majority of the time, this is true. But, the lifetime of a top quark is only an average lifetime. Sometimes it decays faster and sometimes it decays slower. In the highly improbable case that...
I'm following this paper by Kitaev on SL(2,R) representations and I'm having a problem in the normalization of the continuous eigenfunctions (eqs. (67)-(70)), which satisfy \langle f_s | f_{s'} \rangle = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{2}{(1-u)^2} f_s(u)^* f_{s'}(u) \, du. \tag{67} The singular contribution of the integral arises at the endpoint u=1 of the integral, and in the limit u \to 1, the function f_s(u) takes on the form f_s(u) \approx a_s (1-u)^{1/2 + i s} + a_s^* (1-u)^{1/2 - i s}. \tag{70}...
Back
Top