Kumar8434
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You're not going to like this:Stavros Kiri said:Did you use differentiation rules correctly? There are two ways 1. Differentiate both sides of f(f(x)) = x. 2. Go through the equivallent expression f(x) = f-1(x) and again differentiate both sides.
Play adequately with both, or even try to combine them.
The trick is to do correctly an appropriate change of variable, (e.g. y=f(x) ... [?] ...), before or while differentiating, and apply all those differentiation rules carefuly too ... (including the change of variable one) ...
$$f(x)=f^{-1}(x)$$
So, differentiating both sides gives ( by using the fact that ##(f^{-1})'(x)=\frac{1}{f'(f^{-1}(x))}##):
$$f'(x)=\frac{1}{f'(f(x))}$$
Again differentiating this gives:
$$f''(x)=-\frac{1}{(f'(f(x)))^2}*f''(f(x))*f'(x)$$
Since ##f'(x)=(f^{-1})'(x)=\frac{1}{f'(f(x))}##,
$$f''(x)=-\frac{1}{(f'(f(x)))^3}*f''(f(x))$$ ....(1)
Substituting, ##f(x)=x## and hence ##x=f^{-1}(x)=f(x)## in this we get,
$$f''(f(x))=-\frac{1}{(f'(x))^3}*f''(x)$$
Substituting this value of ##f''(f(x))## in (1), we get,
$$f''(x)=-\frac{1}{(f'(f(x)))^3}*-\frac{1}{(f'(x))^3}*f''(x)$$
So,
$$\frac{1}{(f'(f(x)))^3}*\frac{1}{(f'(x))^3}=1$$
After doing all this all what I get is:
$$f'(x)=\frac{1}{f'(f(x))}$$
which is what I started with. Whatever I do I end up at the same point. Apart from this, I believe I must have used some circular reference, or have done something wrong. Never was good with proofs.