Finding the area between Polar Curves

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SUMMARY

The area of the region within the circle defined by r = 1 but outside the polar curve r = cos(2θ) is calculated using the integral A = ∫ 1/2 (r2^2 - r1^2) dθ. The limits for the integral were determined by setting 1 = cos(2θ), resulting in θ = π. The final area was computed as ∏/2, confirming the correctness of the approach. Alternative methods, such as integrating from 0 to π/4 and multiplying by 8, also yield the same result.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of polar coordinates and their equations
  • Familiarity with integral calculus, specifically area calculations
  • Knowledge of trigonometric identities, particularly cos(2θ)
  • Ability to interpret and analyze polar graphs
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation and applications of the area formula A = ∫ 1/2 (r2^2 - r1^2) dθ
  • Learn how to graph polar equations and identify regions between curves
  • Explore the use of symmetry in polar coordinates to simplify area calculations
  • Investigate alternative methods for calculating areas in polar coordinates, such as using Cartesian coordinates
USEFUL FOR

Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on polar coordinates and area calculations, as well as educators teaching these concepts in mathematics courses.

jojo13
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Homework Statement



Find the area of the region that consists of all points that lie within the circle r = 1 but outside the polar equation r = cos(2θ)

Homework Equations



A = ∫ 1/2 (r2^2 - r1^2) dθ, where r2 is outer curve and r1 is inner curve.


The Attempt at a Solution



Here is what the graph looks like if you want to see it: http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=r+=+cos(2x)+polar

Ok so first I had to find out the limits for my integral. I set: 1 = cos(2θ) and got that θ = ∏.

Now I made my integral, but instead of going from -∏ to ∏ I went from 0 to ∏ and multiplied it by 2

A = 2 ∫ 1/2 [(1^2) - (cos(2θ)^2)] dθ, from 0 to ∏

A = ∫ [ (1) - (1/2 cos(4θ) +1)] dθ, from 0 to ∏

I solved it and received: ∏ - ∏/2

Which equals ∏/2.

Just want to know if I did it right. The main part I was worried about was the limits for my integral.
 
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I think it's right but IMHO would benefit from being done more simply.

I guess you could take the area of a circle as known.

For the area enclosed by cos(2θ) you could equally well integrate 0 to π/4 and multiply by 8. But simpler still...

In your polar co-ordinate figure it looks quite plausible that the area enclosed by it is half that of the circle, but is not self-evident.

Whereas it is self-evident in. Cartesian co-ordinates. And you could make the argument purely by symmetry without any integrations.
 
Last edited:
jojo13 said:

Homework Statement



Find the area of the region that consists of all points that lie within the circle r = 1 but outside the polar equation r = cos(2θ)

Homework Equations



A = ∫ 1/2 (r2^2 - r1^2) dθ, where r2 is outer curve and r1 is inner curve.


The Attempt at a Solution



Here is what the graph looks like if you want to see it: http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=r+=+cos(2x)+polar

Ok so first I had to find out the limits for my integral. I set: 1 = cos(2θ) and got that θ = ∏.

Now I made my integral, but instead of going from -∏ to ∏ I went from 0 to ∏ and multiplied it by 2

A = 2 ∫ 1/2 [(1^2) - (cos(2θ)^2)] dθ, from 0 to ∏

A = ∫ [ (1) - (1/2 cos(4θ) +1)] dθ, from 0 to ∏

I solved it and received: ∏ - ∏/2

Which equals ∏/2.

Just want to know if I did it right. The main part I was worried about was the limits for my integral.

If you look at the graph for ##0<\theta<\pi## of the two figures, it is a bit of a stretch to describe what you have as an outer curve and an inner curve. Of course, squaring makes it all work out OK. I would have just gone from ##0## to ##\frac \pi 4## and multiplied by ##8##.
 
LCKurtz said:
If you look at the graph for ##0<\theta<\pi## of the two figures, it is a bit of a stretch to describe what you have as an outer curve and an inner curve. Of course, squaring makes it all work out OK. I would have just gone from ##0## to ##\frac \pi 4## and multiplied by ##8##.

I see. That's and interesting way of looking at the problem. Thanks for that.

Also, if I'm not mistaken both give the same answer (∏/2) right?
 
Yes, ##\frac \pi 2## is correct.
 

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