Getting two different integrals for same function(?)

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves evaluating the integral ∫sin(2x)/((sin(x))^4+(cos(x))^4) dx, with a focus on the discrepancies arising from different approaches to the integral. The subject area pertains to calculus, specifically integral calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to manipulate the integral into different forms, leading to two distinct results. Some participants question the validity of these results and whether the difference might be a constant. Others suggest considering the limits of integration and the implications of symmetry in the function.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring the reasons behind obtaining two different results for the integral. There is a recognition that the integral has limits, and some guidance is offered regarding the symmetry of the function and the evaluation of limits. However, there is no explicit consensus on the resolution of the discrepancies.

Contextual Notes

The integral is evaluated from 0 to π/2, and there is mention of a potential issue with the integral approaching infinity at π/4. This raises questions about the validity of the results obtained from different approaches.

1/2"
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Homework Statement


The actual problem is ∫sin2x/((sinx)4+(cosx)4) dx


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


First wrote the expression as
∫\frac{2sin2x}{((sinx)^2+(cosx)^2)^2+((sinx)^2-(cosx)^2))^2 } dx
then I changed the 2dx to d(2x)
∫\frac{sin2x}{((sinx)^2+(cosx)^2)^2+((sinx)^2-(cosx)^2))^2 } d2x

∫\frac{sin2x}{1+ (cos2x)^2 } d2x

Multiplying the whole expressioin with (sec2x)^2

∫\frac{tan2x sec2x}{1+ (sec2x)^2 } d2x

tan2xsec2x d(2x) = d((sec2x)^2)

taking sec2x =t

∫\frac{1}{1+ t^2 } dt
At this stage I am getting 2 different result when i proceed in 2 different way

First one:
integrating i get
arctan t = arctan (sec 2x)

Second one :
- ∫-\frac{1}{1+ t^2 } dt

- arccot t

-arctan (cos2x)

Am i going wrong somewhere? please could you point it out ?
Thanks in advance!
 
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When an indefinite integral appears to give two different answers, it generally turns out that the difference is a constant. I believe that is the case here.
 
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Actually it has got limits - 0 and \frac{∏}{2}

And putting the limits the answer in the first case come as \frac{∏}{2} and in the second one -\frac{∏}{2}


haruspex said:
When an indefinite integral appears to give two different answers, it generally turns out that the difference is a constant. I believe that is the case here.

Ya the difference is a constant arctan ∞ = \frac{∏}{2}

If I happen to give either of the answer will it be marked correct ? or do I have to work out both of them ?
 
Last edited:
1/2" said:
Actually it has got limits - 0 and \frac{∏}{2}

And putting the limits the answer in the first case come as \frac{∏}{2} and in the second one -\frac{∏}{2}
With those limits, there will be some doubt about the validity since your integral goes through an infinity at π/4. You could fix that by observing there's symmetry about π/4, so you can take the integral 0 to π/4 and double it.
However, I don't see why you are getting different answers. When I substitute those limits in your integrals I get \frac{∏}{2} for both.
 

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