TFM
- 1,016
- 0
Missed that one...
so 2t:
[tex]\frac{2}{p}^2[/tex]
?
TFM
so 2t:
[tex]\frac{2}{p}^2[/tex]
?
TFM
sara_87 said:Laplace of e^3t(t)=1/(p-3)^2
so Laplace of ------ = 2/(p-1)^2
we know that laplace of 2t=2/p^2
so that means laplace of 2t(e^t)=2/(p-1)^2
does this make sense to you?? (think about it). you are finding the opposite of the laplace...called the inverse.
Ok, the first shift theorem says that:
if you have a function that looks like: e^(at)F(t);
the laplace of that is the laplace of F(t) but instead of putting p, you put p-a
eg: L(e^3t(t))
we know that laplace of t is 1/p^2 (you know that from the tables right?)
and so here a=3 so the laplace of e^(3t)(t)=1/(p-3)^2
so, where ever you have p, you replace with p-a in this case, p-3
Do you agree??
4t will give you 4/s^2,but we don't want s at the bottom, we want (s+2) so that's why we use the first shift theorem and times the 4t by e^(-2t).