TFM
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Missed that one...
so 2t:
\frac{2}{p}^2
?
TFM
so 2t:
\frac{2}{p}^2
?
TFM
The discussion revolves around solving second-order ordinary differential equations (ODEs) using Laplace transformations. The original poster presents several ODEs and expresses difficulty in applying Laplace transforms to find solutions.
The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the transformation process and clarifying the use of specific formulas. Some participants express confusion over the notation and the steps taken, while others attempt to clarify these points. There is no explicit consensus yet on the final approach to solving the ODEs.
Participants are working under the constraints of homework rules, which may limit the amount of direct assistance provided. The original poster has indicated a lack of understanding of the Laplace transformation process, prompting further exploration and questioning of assumptions and definitions related to the topic.
sara_87 said:Laplace of e^3t(t)=1/(p-3)^2
so Laplace of ------ = 2/(p-1)^2
we know that laplace of 2t=2/p^2
so that means laplace of 2t(e^t)=2/(p-1)^2
does this make sense to you?? (think about it). you are finding the opposite of the laplace...called the inverse.
Ok, the first shift theorem says that:
if you have a function that looks like: e^(at)F(t);
the laplace of that is the laplace of F(t) but instead of putting p, you put p-a
eg: L(e^3t(t))
we know that laplace of t is 1/p^2 (you know that from the tables right?)
and so here a=3 so the laplace of e^(3t)(t)=1/(p-3)^2
so, where ever you have p, you replace with p-a in this case, p-3
Do you agree??
4t will give you 4/s^2,but we don't want s at the bottom, we want (s+2) so that's why we use the first shift theorem and times the 4t by e^(-2t).