How Can De Moivre's Formula Help Find the Real Part of z=ii?

AI Thread Summary
De Moivre's formula can be applied to find the real part of z=ii by converting the expression into exponential form. The discussion reveals that rewriting ii as e^(i ln(i)) leads to the conclusion that ln(i) equals iπ/2. This simplification results in i^i being expressed as e^(-π/2), which is a real number. Participants confirm the validity of this approach using Wolfram Alpha for verification. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding logarithmic properties in complex analysis.
zenite
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1. Find the real part of z=ii by using De Moivre's formula.



Homework Equations


z= r(cos\theta + i sin\theta)
zn= rn(cos(n\theta) + i sin(n\theta))


I tried using n=i to solve and got the ans 1i, but somehow feel that its not that simple. And the resultant argument I got from this approach is i\theta which doesn't make sense. Tried using natural log, but didn't work out too.
 
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Start by rewriting in exponential form and then use:

(eix)n = einx

That should do the trick :wink:
 
z = ii = ei(lni)
so n=lni and the real part is cos(lni). is this correct?
 
I'm not sure where your ln(i) comes from but that part is correct since ln(i) = i\pi/2. However it can be simplified further.

I would have just written:
i^{i} = (e^{i\pi/2})^{i} = e^{i i\pi/2} = e^{- \pi/2} and that's your answer since this is a real number already. (Wolfram Alpha confirms it)
 
thanks alot. I couldn't get the part where lni = i(PI)/2, tried googling but couldn't find anything. but I could understand your working, you make it look so simple.

I used the formula, elny = y for my working, that's where the ln comes from. but yours is much more simplified.
 
zenite said:
I couldn't get the part where lni = i(PI)/2

Well, actually I just used Wolfram Alpha to find that, but if we combine our formulas, we have just proved it's true.
 
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