How Do You Apply the Raising Operator to Find Y^{2}_{2}(\theta, \phi)?

Rahmuss
Messages
222
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


In Problem 4.3 you showed that

Y^{1}_{2}(\theta , \phi) = -\sqrt{15/8\pi} sin\theta cos\theta e^{i\phi}

Apply the raising operator to find Y^{2}_{2}(\theta , \phi). Use Equation 4.121 to get the normalization.


Homework Equations



[Eq. 4.121] A^{m}_{l} = \hbar \sqrt{l(l + 1) - m(m \pm 1)} = \hbar \sqrt{(l \mp m)(l \pm m +1)}.


The Attempt at a Solution



So, I think my problem, in part, is that I don't know what they mean when they say "Use Equation 4.121 to get the normalization." So, with that in mind I did try something; but it seems too simple:

L_{+} Y^{1}_{2}(\theta , \phi) = \epsilon \sqrt{\frac{(2l + 1)(l - |(m+1)|)\fact}{4\pi(l + |(m+1)|)\fact}} e^{i(m+1)\phi} P^{(m+1)}_{l}(x)

So, everywhere I have just m, I add one to it, which really just gives me the formula for Y^{2}_{2}. Then solving it is simple. So I must not be understanding the question properly. And I don't see what equation 4.121 has to do with anything. I'm used to noramlization being something like:

1 = \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}|\psi|^{2} dx
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Rahmuss said:

Homework Statement


In Problem 4.3 you showed that

Y^{1}_{2}(\theta , \phi) = -\sqrt{15/8\pi} sin\theta cos\theta e^{i\phi}

Apply the raising operator to find Y^{2}_{2}(\theta , \phi). Use Equation 4.121 to get the normalization.


Homework Equations



[Eq. 4.121] A^{m}_{l} = \hbar \sqrt{l(l + 1) - m(m \pm 1)} = \hbar \sqrt{(l \mp m)(l \pm m +1)}.


The Attempt at a Solution



So, I think my problem, in part, is that I don't know what they mean when they say "Use Equation 4.121 to get the normalization." So, with that in mind I did try something; but it seems too simple:

L_{+} Y^{1}_{2}(\theta , \phi) = \epsilon \sqrt{\frac{(2l + 1)(l - |(m+1)|)\fact}{4\pi(l + |(m+1)|)\fact}} e^{i(m+1)\phi} P^{(m+1)}_{l}(x)

So, everywhere I have just m, I add one to it, which really just gives me the formula for Y^{2}_{2}. Then solving it is simple. So I must not be understanding the question properly. And I don't see what equation 4.121 has to do with anything. I'm used to noramlization being something like:

1 = \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}|\psi|^{2} dx

First step:

L_+ Y^1_2 is equal to what? It's equal to some constant times Y_2^2, right? What is that constant?
 
You mean the whole:

\hat{Q}f(x) = qf(x)

If that's what you mean, then I guess it would just be:

L_{+}Y^{1}_{2} = lY^{2}_{2}

? Is that right?
Earlier on the chapter discusses

L^{2}f_{t} = \lambda f_{t}

But it doesn't apply the L_{+} operator.
 
Last edited:
Rahmuss said:
You mean the whole:

\hat{Q}f(x) = qf(x)

If that's what you mean, then I guess it would just be:

L_{+}Y^{1}_{2} = lY^{2}_{2}

? Is that right?
Earlier on the chapter discusses

L^{2}f_{t} = \lambda f_{t}

But it doesn't apply the L_{+} operator.

Of course, Y^1_2 is NOT an eigenstate of L_+ so you can't use the eigenvalue equation.

What I mean is : use equation 4.121 to figure out the constant! That's what 4.121 is for! To figure out the constant generated when applying the raising or lowering operators!
 
Ah, ok. I understand (I hope).

So, with Eq. 4.121 goes to:

A^{2}_{2} = \hbar \sqrt{2(2+1) - 2(2\mp 1} ---->

A^{2}_{2} = \hbar \sqrt{6 - 2} = 2\hbar

The other leads to zero, so I guess I can throw that out.

So, if I understood correctly the first step is done?

L_{+} Y^{1}_{2} = 2\hbar Y^{2}_{2} ?

Or do I just say:

\frac{L_{+} Y^{1}_{2}}{2\hbar} = Y^{2}_{2}
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top