How Is Cp - Cv Calculated for an Ideal Monatomic Gas Using Thermodynamics?

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The calculation of C_p - C_v for an ideal monatomic gas involves using the equation C_p - C_v = [P + (∂U/∂V)_T][(∂V/∂T)_P]. The user initially substituted PV = RT into the internal energy equation, leading to an incorrect differentiation that kept pressure constant instead of temperature. The correct approach requires recognizing that the partial derivative (∂U/∂V)_T should yield a different result, specifically that it equals 0 when temperature is held constant. This misunderstanding led to the erroneous conclusion that C_p - C_v equals 5/2 R instead of the correct value of R. Clarifying the differentiation process resolves the confusion regarding the calculation.
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Homework Statement


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Use the equation $$C_p - C_v = \left[ P + \left( \frac {∂U}{∂V} \right)_T\right] \left[ \left( \frac {∂V}{∂T} \right)_P \right]$$ to find ##C_p - C_v## for an ideal monatomic gas.

Homework Equations



##U = \frac {3}{2} RT##
##PV = RT##

The Attempt at a Solution



I substitute ##PV = RT## into the expression for ##U## to get ##U = \frac {3}{2} PV##, therefore

$$\left( \frac {∂U}{∂V} \right)_T = \frac {3}{2} P$$

Since ##PV=RT ⇒ V = \frac {RT}{P}##,

$$\left( \frac {∂V}{∂T} \right)_P = \frac {R}{P}$$

Therefore ##C_p - C_v = [P + \frac {3}{2} P][\frac {R}{P}] = \frac {5}{2} R## but the real answer is ##C_p - C_v = R##. What have I done wrong? I can't seem to find the mistake.
 
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subzero0137 said:
I substitute ##PV = RT## into the expression for ##U## to get ##U = \frac {3}{2} PV##, therefore

$$\left( \frac {∂U}{∂V} \right)_T = \frac {3}{2} P$$
The T suffix in
$$\left( \frac {∂U}{∂V} \right)_T $$
means keeping T constant. In performing the differentiation you appear to have kept P constant instead.
 
haruspex said:
The T suffix in
$$\left( \frac {∂U}{∂V} \right)_T $$
means keeping T constant. In performing the differentiation you appear to have kept P constant instead.

Oh I see. So the partial derivative would be 0?
 
subzero0137 said:
Oh I see. So the partial derivative would be 0?
Yes.
 
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