How the two-body decay momentum distribution transform in lab frame?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the transformation of two-body decay momentum distribution from the center of mass (CM) frame to the lab frame. The final particle distribution in the CM frame is given by the equation $$W^*(\cos\theta^*,\phi^*) = \frac{1}{4\pi}(1+\alpha\cos\theta^*)$$, with normalization confirmed by $$\int W^*(\cos\theta^*,\phi^*)d\cos\theta^* d\phi^*=1$$. The momentum distribution is expressed as $$W^*(\cos\theta^*,\phi^*,p^*) = \frac{1}{4\pi}(1+\alpha\cos\theta^*)\delta(p^*-C^*)$$. The transformation to the lab frame requires applying Lorentz transformations, particularly for the angles, while maintaining the constant momentum magnitude.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of two-body decay processes in particle physics
  • Familiarity with the center of mass frame and lab frame concepts
  • Knowledge of Lorentz transformations
  • Experience with delta functions in probability distributions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study Lorentz transformations in detail, focusing on angle transformations
  • Explore the implications of momentum conservation in particle decay
  • Review the mathematical treatment of delta functions in distributions
  • Investigate the relationship between decay products' masses and momentum in different frames
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Particle physicists, researchers in high-energy physics, and students studying decay processes and frame transformations will benefit from this discussion.

Chenkb
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For two-body decay, in the center of mass frame, final particle distribution is,
$$
W^*(\cos\theta^*,\phi^*) = \frac{1}{4\pi}(1+\alpha\cos\theta^*)
$$
We have the normalization relation , ##\int W^*(\cos\theta^*,\phi^*)d\cos\theta^* d\phi^*=1##.

And we also know that in CM frame ##p^*## is a constant, say, ##p^*=C^*##.

So, the final particle momentum distribution can be write as(I'm not sure),
$$
W^*(\cos\theta^*,\phi^*,p^*) = \frac{1}{4\pi}(1+\alpha\cos\theta^*)\delta(p^*-C^*)
$$
If the above momentum distribution in CM frame is right,
then what does it look like in the lab frame,
$$W(\cos\theta,\phi,p)=?$$
assume that the mother particle moves with velocity ##\beta## along ##z## axis.
I know it is just a Lorentz transformation, but how to handle this, especially the ##\delta##-function.

Best Regards!
 
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You only need to transform the angle according to the usual formula (see for example http://www.maths.tcd.ie/~cblair/notes/specrel.pdf). p* is usually a combination of the masses of the decaying particle and of the decay product so it remains the same under Lorentz transformation.
 

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