- #1
Telemachus
- 835
- 30
Hi there. I have this interesting problem which I don't know how to solve. I'll post it here because I think more people will se it, but I'm not sure if this is the proper subforum.
The problem says: How can be sure that [tex]\sum_{n = 1}^\infty \frac{1}{n}\sin (nx)[/tex] isn't the Fourier series of a derivable function?
I thought that it doesn't accomplish the Diritchlet postulates, but it actually doesn't mean that it isn't a Fourier series.
Does anyone know how to solve this?
Bye there and thanks.
The problem says: How can be sure that [tex]\sum_{n = 1}^\infty \frac{1}{n}\sin (nx)[/tex] isn't the Fourier series of a derivable function?
I thought that it doesn't accomplish the Diritchlet postulates, but it actually doesn't mean that it isn't a Fourier series.
Does anyone know how to solve this?
Bye there and thanks.