How to solve the integral using integration by parts?

  • #51
t_n_p said:
ok I do that, but my RHS is different to what you suggested in post 45
I get...

-1 + (3/2)(I(-4)(pi/2) - I(-4)(pi/4))
Where to from there?

Yeah, what you've written is right. I've fixed the integrals. It's from pi/4 to pi/2 as you've written.
 
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  • #52
Ok, so once that is done I change back to the integral form?
 
  • #53
t_n_p said:
Ok, so once that is done I change back to the integral form?

yeah. You can also go straight to the integral form after substituting in n=-2... it's up to you...

The idea is to get \int_{\pi/4}^{\pi/2}{sin^{-4}(x)dx} in terms of \int_{\pi/4}^{\pi/2}{sin^{-2}(x)dx}
 
  • #54
yeh, so once I get up to.. https://www.physicsforums.com/latex_images/14/1408407-0.png

Do I let n=0 and repeat process to solve for LHS?
 
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  • #55
t_n_p said:
yeh, so once I get up to.. https://www.physicsforums.com/latex_images/14/1408407-0.png

Do I let n=0 and repeat process to solve for LHS?

No. The left side can be solved directly... the integral of 1/sin^2(x) = -cot(x)...
 
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  • #56
oh, didnt think of that!
 
  • #57
Did you finish the problem?
 
  • #58
Yep! Thanks a bunch :D
 
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