yogi
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Ich - I think you are trying to imply things I have not said. If you are saying that two separated clocks (say A and B) at rest wrt each other, and A is given a brief acceleration toward B, and travels most of the distance at constant velocity v, but just before reaching B, B is accelerated in the same direction to a velocity v, so now both A and B are moving together at velocity v relative to some object in the original frame of reference. Then A and B now run at the same rate because they are in the same frame (I hope we agree on that) but they do not read the same time - When B pulls alongside A, the time on the A clock will be less than the time on the B clock (do we agree on this)?
In fact, it is not necessary to wait until A is near B. For example, if A is at the origin of the X axis, and B is at X = 100 miles and both blast off in the direction of the + X axis at the same time with identical accelerations for identical time periods (their integrating accelerometers are set to cut off at the same velocity) Both will have reached a velocity v in the direction of the + X axis, so do you think there will be any difference in the reading on A's clock relative to B's clock now that they are traveling together in the same frame but still equally separated?
In fact, it is not necessary to wait until A is near B. For example, if A is at the origin of the X axis, and B is at X = 100 miles and both blast off in the direction of the + X axis at the same time with identical accelerations for identical time periods (their integrating accelerometers are set to cut off at the same velocity) Both will have reached a velocity v in the direction of the + X axis, so do you think there will be any difference in the reading on A's clock relative to B's clock now that they are traveling together in the same frame but still equally separated?