Integral calculations using Cauchy's Integral formula

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the integral \(\int_{C} \frac{e^z}{\pi i - 2z} dz\) using Cauchy's Integral Formula. The correct application reveals that \(\int_{C} \frac{e^z}{\pi i - 2z} dz\) is equivalent to \(-\frac{1}{2} \int_{C} \frac{e^z}{z - \frac{\pi}{2} i} dz\), highlighting the importance of retaining the constant factor of \(-\frac{1}{2}\). The initial miscalculation led to an incorrect result of \(-2\pi\), which was corrected by recognizing the constant's significance. This emphasizes the necessity of careful manipulation of constants in complex integrals.

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Susanne217
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Homework Statement



Calculate the integral

Given [tex]\int_{C} \frac{e^z}{\pi i - 2z} dz = \int_{C} \frac{e^z}{z-\frac{\pi i}{2}} dz}[/tex]

using Cauchy integral formula.

Homework Equations



What I know

[tex]\frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_{C} \frac{f(z)}{z-\zeta} = 2\pi i f(\zeta)[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



This in my little girly mind amounts to

[tex]2\pi i f(\frac{\pi i}{2}) = \int_{C} \frac{e^z}{z-\frac{\pi}{2}i} dz \Rightarrow \int_{C} \frac{e^z}{z-\frac{\pi}{2}i} dz = 2 \pi \cdot (i) \cdot (i) = -2\pi[/tex]

But people who are wiser than me says to me "Susanne your result is wrong!". Could someone please point out my mistake?

thanks Susanne
 
Last edited:
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e^z/(i*pi-2z) isn't equal to e^z/(z-i*pi/2). It's equal to (-1/2)*e^z/(z-i*pi/2). You can't just drop the (-1/2) constant.
 
Dick said:
e^z/(i*pi-2z) isn't equal to e^z/(z-i*pi/2). It's equal to (-1/2)*e^z/(z-i*pi/2). You can't just drop the (-1/2) constant.

Dick,

You are a genius my man. I simply couldn't see that :D
 

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