Integrating a trigonometric integral with multiple variables

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Homework Statement


\displaystyle \int^{\pi /2}_0 \dfrac{xcosxsinx}{(a^2 cos^2 x+b^2 sin^2 x)^2} dx

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



2I = \displaystyle \int^{\pi /2}_0 \dfrac{xcosxsinx}{(a^2 cos^2 x+b^2 sin^2 x)^2} + \dfrac{(\pi /2 -x)cosxsinx}{(a^2 sin^2 x+b^2 cos^2 x)^2} dx

How to simplify after this?
 
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utkarshakash said:

Homework Statement


\displaystyle \int^{\pi /2}_0 \dfrac{xcosxsinx}{(a^2 cos^2 x+b^2 sin^2 x)^2} dx

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



2I = \displaystyle \int^{\pi /2}_0 \dfrac{xcosxsinx}{(a^2 cos^2 x+b^2 sin^2 x)^2} + \dfrac{(\pi /2 -x)cosxsinx}{(a^2 sin^2 x+b^2 cos^2 x)^2} dx

How to simplify after this?

I couldn't think of a smarter way but the following should work.

You can write the given integral as
\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{x\tan x \sec^2x}{(a^2+b^2\tan^2x)^2}dx
Use the substitution ##\tan x=t## and then integrate by parts.

And what about your previous thread? Did you get the answer? :rolleyes:
 
^Are you trying to get the antiderivative? It is easy to get rid of the x in front by integrating by parts, but the new integral is hard. Perhaps the bounds can be used, but the a and b break the symmetry.
 
lurflurf said:
^Are you trying to get the antiderivative? It is easy to get rid of the x in front by integrating by parts, but the new integral is hard. Perhaps the bounds can be used, but the a and b break the symmetry.

Yes, I am trying to find the antiderivative. The new integral isn't hard but only a bit lengthy (I think).

The new integral after substitution,
\int_0^{\infty} \frac{\arctan t\cdot t}{(a^2+b^2t^2)^2}dt

This can be solved using integration by parts.
 
Pranav-Arora said:
I couldn't think of a smarter way but the following should work.

You can write the given integral as
\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{x\tan x \sec^2x}{(a^2+b^2\tan^2x)^2}dx
Use the substitution ##\tan x=t## and then integrate by parts.

And what about your previous thread? Did you get the answer? :rolleyes:

Yes I got the answer of previous question.
 
I found a shorter method.

Solve the given integral using integration by parts with ##u=x## and ##v## be the rest i.e
x\int \frac{\sin x \cos x}{(a^2\cos^2x+b^2\sin^2x)^2}dx-\int \left(\int \frac{\sin x \cos x}{(a^2\cos^2x+b^2\sin^2x)^2}dx\right)dx

Use the substitution, ##(a^2\cos^2x+b^2\sin^2x)=t## that should give the answer.
 
utkarshakash said:
Yes I got the answer of previous question.

This question is very easy by utkarshakash's method but he got afraid to see the big size of his integrand. :p

I too at first thought would use his method.

After simplifying you get,

2I=...This will eliminate x. No need to integrate by parts. :)

Hint: Then use the substitution as Pranav suggested. Take sqrt(denominator)=t...
 
Last edited:
sankalpmittal said:
This will eliminate x.

No. How do you conclude that?
 
Pranav-Arora said:
No. How do you conclude that?

Isn't is obvious ?

Let

I=π/20∫{xcosxsinx}/{(a2 cos2 x+b2 sin2 x)2} dx

Then applying the property of definite integration,

I=π/20∫{(π/2-x)cosxsinx}/{(a2 cos2 x+b2 sin2 x)2} dx

On adding,

2I= I=π/20∫{π/2cosxsinx}/{(a2 cos2 x+b2 sin2 x)2} dx

Now take, a2 cos2 x+b2 sin2 x=t
 
  • #10
sankalpmittal said:
Then applying the property of definite integration,

I=π/20∫{(π/2-x)cosxsinx}/{(a2 cos2 x+b2 sin2 x)2} dx

\cos(\pi/2-x)=\sin x
 
Last edited:
  • #11
Pranav-Arora said:
\cos(\pi/2-x)=\sin x

So what ?

cos x changes to sin x but sin x also changes to cos x. The net result remains, what I typed in my previous post. I have done such type of questions.
 
  • #12
sankalpmittal said:
So what ?

cos x changes to sin x but sin x also changes to cos x. The net result remains, what I typed in my previous post. I have done such type of questions.

You ignored the denominator when you applied the property.
 
  • #13
sankalpmittal said:
So what ?

cos x changes to sin x but sin x also changes to cos x. The net result remains, what I typed in my previous post. I have done such type of questions.

No. You are going the wrong way. Note that though cos x and sin x interchange, the coefficents are also reversed. a^2 cos^2 x + b^2 sin^2 x changes to a^2 sin^2 x + b^2 cos^2 x. Now you can't just add the numerator simply. You know what I mean.
 
  • #14
utkarshakash said:
No. You are going the wrong way. Note that though cos x and sin x interchange, the coefficents are also reversed. a^2 cos^2 x + b^2 sin^2 x changes to a^2 sin^2 x + b^2 cos^2 x. Now you can't just add the numerator simply. You know what I mean.

Did you arrive at the answer? :smile:
 
  • #15
Pranav-Arora said:
Did you arrive at the answer? :smile:

I got the answer by your method. Thanks!
 
  • #16
utkarshakash said:
I got the answer by your method. Thanks!

Glad to help!
 
  • #17
utkarshakash said:
No. You are going the wrong way. Note that though cos x and sin x interchange, the coefficents are also reversed. a^2 cos^2 x + b^2 sin^2 x changes to a^2 sin^2 x + b^2 cos^2 x. Now you can't just add the numerator simply. You know what I mean.

Oh, I ignored the denominator when I applied the property ! :redface:

However, when you integrate by parts, you can also divide both sides by cos4x, and then take tan2(x) = t. This will simplify the integrand to a mere identity.
 
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