Is ##p^k = \partial L / \partial \dot{x}^k## true for all ##L##'s?

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SUMMARY

The relationship $$p^k = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}^k}$$ holds true for all Lagrangians, as demonstrated using the specific Lagrangian $$L=T-U=\frac{1}{2}mv^2-U$$. In this case, the generalized momentum $$p^k$$ is defined as $$m\dot{x}^k$$, confirming the equivalence for the k-th component of momentum. This foundational concept is crucial for understanding classical mechanics and the formulation of dynamics through Lagrangian mechanics.

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Is the relation Is ##p^k = \partial L / \partial \dot{x}^k## true for all Lagrangians?
Using the Lagrangian $$L=T-U=\frac{1}{2}mv^2-U$$ we clearly have $$ \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}^k} = m\dot{x}^k = p^k $$ i.e., the ##k##'th component of momentum. How does one show that the relation $$p^k = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}^k} $$ holds for all Lagrangians?
 
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“The generalized momentum "canonically conjugate to" the coordinate qi is defined by

{\displaystyle p_{i}={\frac {\partial L}{\partial {\dot {q}}_{i}}}.}
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Generalized_coordinates
 
Thanks. I did not phrase the question very well. I have made a more detailed post of the question here:
 

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