Is the Supremum Proof of 0.999... = 1 Flawed?

In summary, the conversation discusses different methods of proving that .999... equals 1. The speaker argues against using the supremum method and instead suggests using the infinite series proof. The conversation also mentions the importance of defining the concept of .999... and the definition's equivalence to the statement .999...=1. Another method of proving this equality is by considering it as a geometric series. However, this method may pose problems when multiplying .99... by another number.
  • #1
TylerH
729
0
I know .999... = 1. I'm just arguing against this method of proof.

A common proof I see that [itex].999 \ldots = 1[/itex] is that [itex]sup\{.9, .99, .999, \ldots \} = 1[/itex], but this is only true if you assume [itex].999 \ldots \ge 1[/itex]. If you assume, as most argue, that [itex].999 \ldots < 1[/itex], then [itex]sup \{.9, .99, .999, \ldots \} = .999 \ldots < 1[/itex]. Of course, by assuming [itex].999 \ldots < 1[/itex], you get the nonsense expected at the end of a proof by contradiction, but you still have to proof that [itex].999 \ldots < 1[/itex] is nonsense by proving [itex].999 \ldots = 1[/itex]. Therefore, the supremum method is useless.

Is my logic correct?
 
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  • #2
TylerH said:
Is my logic correct?
I'm not entirely sure. I think no, because you seem to be confusing the proof sketch with the actual proof. Computing that supremum is the idea of the proof. The actual proof consists of actually carrying out the relatively easy computation. (assuming it's being presented in a context where calculation is expected to be so obvious/trivial it can be emitted)
 
  • #3
Okay we just had a first look at sups, but I thought I understood it to mean : sup [-1,1) = 1
for example.
So, why should sup{.9999...}=1 only if .999...>=1? shouldn't it require lessthan/equal 1?
 
  • #4
Hurkyl said:
I'm not entirely sure. I think no, because you seem to be confusing the proof sketch with the actual proof. Computing that supremum is the idea of the proof. The actual proof consists of actually carrying out the relatively easy computation. (assuming it's being presented in a context where calculation is expected to be so obvious/trivial it can be emitted)
Assume 1 > .999... Obviously, 1 is greater than any number in {.9, .99, .999, ...}, but so is .999... So, since the supremum is the lowest upper bound, and 1 and .999... are bother upper bounds, .999... is the sup or lub.

ArcanaNoir said:
Okay we just had a first look at sups, but I thought I understood it to mean : sup [-1,1) = 1
for example.
So, why should sup{.9999...}=1 only if .999...>=1? shouldn't it require lessthan/equal 1?
sup is the lowest upper bound, so if a is the lowest upper bound, and b is an upper bound, then b >= a. This is a direct consequence of the definition of sup.
 
  • #5
TylerH said:
I know .999... = 1. I'm just arguing against this method of proof.

A common proof I see that [itex].999 \ldots = 1[/itex] is that [itex]sup\{.9, .99, .999, \ldots \} = 1[/itex], but this is only true if you assume [itex].999 \ldots \ge 1[/itex]. If you assume, as most argue, that [itex].999 \ldots < 1[/itex], then [itex]sup \{.9, .99, .999, \ldots \} = .999 \ldots < 1[/itex]. Of course, by assuming [itex].999 \ldots < 1[/itex], you get the nonsense expected at the end of a proof by contradiction, but you still have to proof that [itex].999 \ldots < 1[/itex] is nonsense by proving [itex].999 \ldots = 1[/itex]. Therefore, the supremum method is useless.

Is my logic correct?

.9999... is meaningful as a limit. The partial sequences .999... of a finite number of 9's are a Cauchy sequence.The difference 1 - ,9999... of 1 with n 9's is .00000...1 with n+1 leading zeros.
 
  • #6
Yeah, I've seen the Cauchy sequence proof, too. I see no flawed assumption. But do you see what I mean about the Supremum method?
 
  • #7
I personally prefer the infinite series proof in my signature.
 
  • #8
I don't see a signature. But, I know which one you're referring to.
 
  • #9
You can't prove that 0.999...=1 without first defining what the left-hand side means. The standard definition is [tex]0.999\dots=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{9}{10^n},[/tex] but [tex]0.999\dots=\sup\{0.9,0.99,\dots\}[/tex] is a perfectly acceptable alternative definition. What definition are you using?
 
  • #10
Char. Limit said:
I personally prefer the infinite series proof in my signature.

It hinges on the definition of limit.
 
  • #11
Hells said:
It hinges on the definition of limit.

Unless I make .999...=1 an axiom, I'd have to hinge it on something. I think the definition of a limit is sufficiently stable.
 
  • #12
Char. Limit said:
I personally prefer the infinite series proof in my signature.

I don't see a signature either.
 
  • #13
Hells said:
It hinges on the definition of limit.
What's your point? Every proof of the result 0.999...=1 hinges on the definition of 0.999... and the definitions of the terms used in that definition, and so on, all the way down to primitives (the terms left undefined). The primitives are usually taken to be the concept of "set" and "membership" (what it means for a set to be a member of a set).

By the way, all the acceptable definitions of 0.999... are equivalent to simply stating that 0.999...=1. Each proof tells us precisely that the definition of 0.999... it relies on is equivalent to 0.999...=1.

The point of such a proof isn't to find out if 0.999...=1 is "really" true, but to confirm that the definition we chose does the job we intended it to do. A definition of 0.999... that can be used to show that 0.999...≠1 would simply be dismissed.
 
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  • #14
@TylerH:

So, you just define .999... to be sup{.9, .99, ...} and then show that 1 is also the sup of this set. I think this is they way the proof you mentioned is supposed to work.
 
  • #15
Robert1986 said:
@TylerH:

So, you just define .999... to be sup{.9, .99, ...} and then show that 1 is also the sup of this set. I think this is they way the proof you mentioned is supposed to work.

Okay, now that makes sense. It would force .999... = 1 by the transitive property of equality.
 
  • #16
0.111... * 9 = 0.999...
but 1/9 = 0.111...
so 0.999... = 0.111... * 9 = (1/9) * 9 = 1
 
  • #17
when I I have first know the recurvesing numbers i used to use this method

x=0.999...
10x=9.999...
9x=9
x=9/9=1But you can consider the number as a geometric series
 
  • #18
Nanas said:
when I I have first know the recurvesing numbers i used to use this method

x=0.999...
10x=9.999...
9x=9
x=9/9=1


But you can consider the number as a geometric series

And indeed, this is what you're doing. Just in a more veiled manner.
 
  • #19
Nanas said:
when I I have first know the recurvesing numbers i used to use this method

x=0.999...
10x=9.999...
9x=9
x=9/9=1


But you can consider the number as a geometric series

The only problem is that when you multiply .99... by anything, you have to have a definition for what that means. Of course, we think of it as just moving the decimal point over, and this is a good way to give a convincing argument to a layman that .999... is 1, but to do it rigoursly, I think you need to do the series expansion or the supremum thing or something else.
 
  • #20
Mohammad_93 said:
0.111... * 9 = 0.999...
but 1/9 = 0.111...
so 0.999... = 0.111... * 9 = (1/9) * 9 = 1

What was the point of this? What bearing did it have to do with anything in the thread or even the title?

I don't see any point in reopening the thread, especially in this fashion. Thread closed.
 

Related to Is the Supremum Proof of 0.999... = 1 Flawed?

What is the proof of .999 = 1?

The proof of .999 = 1 is a mathematical concept known as the supremum proof. It is a proof by contradiction that shows that the number .999 is equal to 1.

How does the supremum proof work?

The supremum proof works by assuming that .999 is less than 1, and then using mathematical properties and operations to show that this assumption leads to a contradiction. This contradiction proves that .999 is in fact equal to 1.

Is the supremum proof a valid proof?

Yes, the supremum proof is a valid mathematical proof. It follows the rules and principles of mathematical reasoning and has been accepted by the mathematical community as a valid proof of the equality .999 = 1.

Why is there a need for a proof of .999 = 1?

There is a need for a proof of .999 = 1 because it is a concept that may seem counterintuitive to some people. While it may seem obvious that .999 is equal to 1, there are mathematical operations and properties that need to be demonstrated in order to prove it.

Are there other proofs of .999 = 1?

Yes, there are other proofs of .999 = 1 besides the supremum proof. Some other proofs include using infinite geometric series and using the decimal representation of numbers. However, the supremum proof is one of the most widely accepted and used proofs for this concept.

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