Lagrangian classical action for particle with constant force

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on calculating the classical action (ScL) for a particle under a constant force using the Lagrangian L = m/2 (dx/dt)^2 + fx. The participants explore the integration of the Lagrangian over a time interval and the implications of initial conditions on simplifying the resulting integral. There is a focus on whether the integral can be expressed in a more succinct form without losing essential variables, as well as concerns about dimensional consistency in the equations. Ultimately, the conclusion is that while simplifications may be attempted, the nature of the Lagrangian leads to complex expressions that may not yield a straightforward result. The discussion highlights the challenges of deriving elegant solutions in classical mechanics.
micole
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Homework Statement


for particle with lagrangian L = m/2 dx/dt^2 + fx where x is constant force, what is ScL (classical action)


Homework Equations


d/dt (∂L/∂(dx/dt)) = ∂L/∂x
ScL = ∫m/2 dx/dt^2 + fx dt from ti to tf

The Attempt at a Solution


d/dt (∂L/∂(dx/dt)) = ∂L/∂x implies f = md2x/dt2 (f = ma)

on aside, from this you can calculate the familiar equations
dx/dt (t) = f/m(t) + dx/dt(0) or v(t) = at + v0
x(t) = 1/2 f/m t^2 + dx/dt(0) t + x(0)

Question: is it helpful to define ti as zero so Xi = x(ti) = X(0) = 0? And if I do this, is my
solution generalizable? I think yes

Scl = ∫m/2 dx/dt^2 + fx dt
for ∫m/2 dx/dt^2 I integrate by parts with
u =dx/dt --> du = (d2x/dt2) dt
and
dv = dx/dt dt --> v = x

Scl = m/2 (dx/dt)(x) from ti to tf -m/2∫fx dt + ∫fx dt
Scl = m/2 {(xf )(f/m tf +dx/dt(0)) - xi(f/m ti + dx/dt(0))} + m/2 ∫fx dt
where xi(f/m ti + dx/dt(0)) goes away if its okay to set xi = x(0) = 0

so potentially I am left with
Scl = m/2 (xf )(f/m tf +dx/dt(0)) + fm/2 ∫x dt
I have X as a function of t so i can integrate the right hand term ( ∫x dt) but I end up with a big equation that's a function with terms t^3/3 and many other terms. Most of the solutions to these problems have ended up simple and elegant so I am assuming I am either making an error or there is a slick math trick that simplifies by function of ti, tf and xf, xi into something lovely.
Thats the part i would like help on please

Thanks very much in advance
 
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Well, the action is just the time integral of the Lagrangian over the time interval that is being considered:

##S=\int_{t_{1}}^{t_{2}}L(t)dt=\int_{t_{1}}^{t_{2}}\left[\frac{m}{2}\left(\frac{dx(t)}{dt}\right)^{2}+Fx(t)\right]dt##, where ##F## is the constant force.

As it's basic physics that the trajectory of the particle is ##x(t)=x_{0}+v_{0}t+\frac{F}{2m}t^{2}##, it's easy to calculate the integral provided that the force ##F##, the initial position and velocity ##x_{0},v_{0}## and the time interval ##[t_{1},t_{2}]## are known.
 
Thanks hilbert. None of those are known. If you take a look at my work you see that what we are being asked is to simplify this integral from a long function of t (as you and I both indicate, it's basic physics to write x as a function of t) into a succinct statement. The point is not to substitute numbers (see final paragraph of my question)
Thanks for any help
 
And I see an error in my statement. The coefficient of integral of Fx is (2-m)/2, not m/2
 
micole said:
The coefficient of integral of Fx is (2-m)/2, not m/2

How is that possible? You are subtracting a dimensional quantity ##m## from a bare number ##2##.

micole said:
Thanks hilbert. None of those are known. If you take a look at my work you see that what we are being asked is to simplify this integral from a long function of t (as you and I both indicate, it's basic physics to write x as a function of t) into a succinct statement. The point is not to substitute numbers (see final paragraph of my question)
Thanks for any help

I'm not sure how the integral ##\int_{t_{1}}^{t_{2}}\left[\frac{m}{2}\left(\frac{dx(t)}{dt}\right)^{2}+Fx(t)\right]dt## could be simplified without solving for ##x(t)## with the initial conditions ##x_{0}##, ##v_{0}## known. Integration by parts doesn't seem to help.
 
hilbert2 said:
How is that possible? You are subtracting a dimensional quantity ##m## from a bare number ##2##.

Oh correction it's 1/2integral Fx dt...I had already taken then m inside the integral to get F from m x d2x/dt^2...still same underlying question remains - how to simplify that result vs leave a function long of t

I'm not sure how the integral ##\int_{t_{1}}^{t_{2}}\left[\frac{m}{2}\left(\frac{dx(t)}{dt}\right)^{2}+Fx(t)\right]dt## could be simplified without solving for ##x(t)## with the initial conditions ##x_{0}##, ##v_{0}## known. Integration by parts doesn't seem to help.
Me neither, exactly my question
 
Last edited:
micole said:

Homework Statement


for particle with lagrangian L = m/2 dx/dt^2 + fx where x is constant force, what is ScL (classical action)

Hi.
Is this the exact problem statement? It doesn't suggest that you should get a particularly succinct (or enlightening) result... You are given a specific potential, so you're indeed supposed to solve for x(t) in terms of a (= the constant acceleration f/m), v0 and x0, then integrate.
You can always make abbreviations like L[x(t0)] in your final result, but you'll always get something with at least four terms and no immediate connection to something familiar.

The thing is, this kind of Lagrangian is defined as L = T – V, where T and V are determined by your choice of coordinates; then it's the principle of least action that gives you the familiar equations of motion upon varying S and you would be going in circles by trying to get something edifying from S. It's just what it's supposed to be: its specific form may look uneventful but that's just how things are sometimes... :)
 
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