Maximization of an Uncertainty Product

Theage
Messages
11
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement


[/B]
Sakurai problem 1.20: find the linear combination of spin-up and spin-down S_z eigenkets that maximizes the uncertainty product \langle(\Delta S_x)^2\rangle\langle(\Delta S_y)^2\rangle.

Homework Equations


[/B]
In general, we can write a normalized spin-space ket as \vert\alpha\rangle = \cos\phi\vert +\rangle+\sin\phi e^{i\theta}\vert -\rangle. Various trig identities are probably relevant (sums and differences of similar complex exponentials and the like). Also, the spin-1/2 representation S_i = \frac\hbar 2\sigma_i is certainly relevant.

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
Since the Pauli sigma matrices are involuntary and the ket is normalized we see immediately that \langle S_x^2\rangle=\langle S_y^2\rangle =\frac{\hbar^2}4. Using elementary trig we can also compute \langle S_x\rangle^2 = \hbar^2\sin^2\phi\cos^2\phi\cos^2\theta,\qquad\langle S_y\rangle = \hbar^2\sin^2\phi\cos^2\phi\sin^2\theta. The uncertainty product is then a function F of two variables that should be maximized, and simplification yields F(\phi,\theta) = \hbar^4(\frac 1 4-\sin^2\phi\cos^2\phi\cos^2\theta)(\frac 1 4-\sin^2\phi\cos^2\phi\sin^2\theta) = \frac{\hbar^4}{16}(1-\sin^2(2\phi)+\frac 1 4\sin^4(2\phi)\sin^2(2\theta). But this has degenerate maxima at phi = nπ/2 for any theta, which is definitely not the expected answer for the problem. Is this due to an algebraic mistake on my part or a conceptual mishap?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I think your answer is correct. Can you describe the physical interpretation of your angles ##\phi## and ##\theta## (or better, ##2\phi## and ##\theta## )? If so, your answer shouldn't be too surprising.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top