Hi wmsaqqa,
I may be able to clear up some of your confusion. You posted a lot of problems, so let me just focus on one of them: Problem 6.35, part b.
It is hard to see in your figure, but I believe that the question (6.35, part b) is similar to my example here: http://utsv.net/mm_shear_flow.html
The moment of inertia is always the total moment of inertia about the neutral axis (perpendicular to the load), no matter where you are calculating the shear. This is why the moment of inertia, I, is the same for #6.35a and #6.35b.
When calculating the first moment, Q, you always multiply the area of interest by the distance to the neutral axis, even if you are not interested in the shear at the neutral axis. Look at the area of interest in my problem in the above link. Now, use the dimensions given in your problem #6.35, and you should be able to see that Q=[area of interest]*distance to neutral axis, which is Q=[56mm*6mm]*37mm.
The shear flow would be q=VQ/I, exactly as I show in my link (http://utsv.net/mm_shear_flow.html). They ask for the shear stress in #6.35b, which is the shear flow divided by the total distance within the cross section that the shear flow is acting over. I'm sorry, but that is the best way I can put it in words. Hopefully you can conceptualize what I mean.
This thickness, t_b, is 2 times the thickness of the top member in your "box beam," as it would be in my example in my link if I were to calculate shear stress. So, t_b=2*6mm=12mm. Note that this result (12mm) has nothing to do with the thickness of the side members of the "box beam," which is also 12mm, by unfortunate coincidence.
You should be able to arrive at the desired solution now.
Does that make sense?