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- Thread starter Shriphysics
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- #2

johng23

- 294

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Remember you can put the origin at any lattice point.

- #3

Shriphysics

- 7

- 0

Your answer is perfect...I was checking all suggestion by inserting values on the link http://www.doitpoms.ac.uk/tlplib/miller_indices/lattice_draw.php

but no value was leading for this plane except yours.

But still I can't say that I got it 100%. Here x intercept is 1, y intercept is 0 and z is 1/2. So according to definition Miller indices should be reduced reciprocal of intercept...then what about x intercept...which should not be 0??

correct me please

- #4

Shriphysics

- 7

- 0

I got that if we consider origin at b=1 on given y-axis point then indices are as you said...but if we consider origin at some other points (suppose a=1 on x axis) then answer will be different. Kindly is there any idea rule to consider origin??

In any case thanks for your consideration.

shriphy

Shriphy

- #5

johng23

- 294

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- #6

CondMattGuy

- 3

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- #7

johng23

- 294

- 1

Wow, that's pretty arrogant.

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