Need a hint proving that integral converges

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I am trying to prove that \int_0^{\pi/4} (\tan x)^{-\alpha} dx is finite for 0 < \alpha < 1, where the integral denotes the Lebesgue integral with the Lebesgue measure. I've decided wether it converges for all other values of \alpha\in\mathbb{R}, but am simply stuck with this one.

I've tried using monotone convergence to integrate over the closed interval from 1/n to pi/4, where I can use the Riemann integral, but I can't figure out how to find an anti-derivative for the function. I've also tried finding a larger, integrable function but without luck.

Any hints would be much appreciated.
 
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What happens if \alpha=1. Is that function integrable?
 
The only difficulty in this problem is the poles that the integrand has at 0 and pi/4, right? So find another function that has the same poles, and study that function, and the difference between it and your integrand.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...

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