julie94
- 18
- 0
Hi everyone,
I would need to get some help on the following question
Let A (m*n)
Let B (m*p)
Let L(A) be the span of the columns of A.
L(A) is orthogonal to L(B) <=> A'B=0
I suppose that the => direction is pretty obvious, since A is in L(A)
and B in is L(B).
Now I am not sure how to attack the <= statement. I guess that every
vector in L(A) is generated by the rows of A, and every vector in L(B)
is generated by the columns of B.
Therefore A'B=0, means Sum(i, j, constant_i*row_i of
A*constant_j*row_j of B).
How can I improve my argument?
I would need to get some help on the following question
Let A (m*n)
Let B (m*p)
Let L(A) be the span of the columns of A.
L(A) is orthogonal to L(B) <=> A'B=0
I suppose that the => direction is pretty obvious, since A is in L(A)
and B in is L(B).
Now I am not sure how to attack the <= statement. I guess that every
vector in L(A) is generated by the rows of A, and every vector in L(B)
is generated by the columns of B.
Therefore A'B=0, means Sum(i, j, constant_i*row_i of
A*constant_j*row_j of B).
How can I improve my argument?
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