bomanfishwow
- 27
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Hi,
I'm trying to remind myself of exactly what, physically, is the difference between V and A couplings. Now, a vector coupling is of the form \bar{\psi}\gamma^\mu\psi, and axial coupling of the form \bar{\psi}\gamma^\mu\gamma^5\psi. Thinking in terms of a chiral fermion expanded as:
<br /> f = \left[\left(\frac{1-\gamma^5}{2}\right) + \left(\frac{1+\gamma^5}{2}\right)\right]\psi<br />
and where \bar{f} = \gamma^\dagger\gamma^0, I assume the difference between the V and A couplings has to do with how the L and R projection operators commute through either \gamma^\mu or \gamma^\mu\gamma^5 from the 'coupling' term, and the \gamma^0 from the conjugate field term in a given Lagrangian.
However, as [\gamma^5,\gamma^5] = 0, I don't see how a difference in the chiral treatment between V and A couplings can arise. Am I barking up completely the wrong tree? Any insight welcomed!
I'm trying to remind myself of exactly what, physically, is the difference between V and A couplings. Now, a vector coupling is of the form \bar{\psi}\gamma^\mu\psi, and axial coupling of the form \bar{\psi}\gamma^\mu\gamma^5\psi. Thinking in terms of a chiral fermion expanded as:
<br /> f = \left[\left(\frac{1-\gamma^5}{2}\right) + \left(\frac{1+\gamma^5}{2}\right)\right]\psi<br />
and where \bar{f} = \gamma^\dagger\gamma^0, I assume the difference between the V and A couplings has to do with how the L and R projection operators commute through either \gamma^\mu or \gamma^\mu\gamma^5 from the 'coupling' term, and the \gamma^0 from the conjugate field term in a given Lagrangian.
However, as [\gamma^5,\gamma^5] = 0, I don't see how a difference in the chiral treatment between V and A couplings can arise. Am I barking up completely the wrong tree? Any insight welcomed!