- #1

Brainface

- 2

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- TL;DR Summary
- Pipe system with unknown geometry. Given pressure drop at a specific flow rate with one fluid. What is the pressure drop using a different fluid?

Hello, everyone,

I am currently working on the following (real) problem, where I am not getting anywhere.

It would be super nice if you could have a look at this. Thank you very much :-).

I have a pipe system (Black Box) of which I only know the following things:

At a set flow rate with a given fluid at room temperature I have a pressure loss of x bar after flowing through the system. The exact geometry or internal structure of the pipe system is completely unknown.

Using the formulas for wall friction losses and losses due to bends, valves etc., I have been able to construct the following ratio.

However, I can't get any further now, because I only know the total pressure loss with Fluid 1, but not the shares of the wall friction and the friction caused by bends, valves...

Furthermore: I have assumed a laminar flow in my equation. However, since I do not know the pipe diameter, this may not apply.

Is there a way to solve that problem? Can I use these equations in the first place or are my thoughts the wrong approach?

Thanks a lot.

Best wishes,

Ben

I am currently working on the following (real) problem, where I am not getting anywhere.

It would be super nice if you could have a look at this. Thank you very much :-).

I have a pipe system (Black Box) of which I only know the following things:

At a set flow rate with a given fluid at room temperature I have a pressure loss of x bar after flowing through the system. The exact geometry or internal structure of the pipe system is completely unknown.

**Question:**How big would the pressure loss be if I took another (different density/viscosity) fluid instead of the given fluid?Using the formulas for wall friction losses and losses due to bends, valves etc., I have been able to construct the following ratio.

However, I can't get any further now, because I only know the total pressure loss with Fluid 1, but not the shares of the wall friction and the friction caused by bends, valves...

Furthermore: I have assumed a laminar flow in my equation. However, since I do not know the pipe diameter, this may not apply.

Is there a way to solve that problem? Can I use these equations in the first place or are my thoughts the wrong approach?

Thanks a lot.

Best wishes,

Ben