Proving Set Theory Equality: How to Use Sentential Calculus Rules

In summary, the problem originally stated was incorrect, as it should have been ((A ∪ B) ∩ A) = (A ∩ A'') ∪ (A ∩ B). Using the distributive property, the left side can be expanded to (A ∩ A) ∪ (A ∩ B), which can then be simplified to just A. The right side can be simplified to (A ∩ A'') ∪ (A ∩ B), and using the fact that the complement of a complement is the original set, this can be further simplified to just A. Therefore, the two sides are equal and the original statement holds true.
  • #1
JoeRocket
3
0
Hi Everyone!

I would really appreciate some help with this set proof.

Homework Statement



Show that, for any sets A, B, ((A ∪ B) ∩ A) = (A ∩ A') ∪ (A ∩ B).
(Hint: Remember that a complement of a complement is just the original set.)

Homework Equations



I can use any sentential calculus rules to prove this equality.

The Attempt at a Solution



I think that the key to this problem is to use the SC distribution rule. But using distribution on the left yields (A ∩ A) ∪ (A ∩ B), and I can't think of anyway to get the left side to (A ∩ A'). There is a hint with the question about complements of complements, but I don't see how to use that. I have tried variations of double negation and still can't get it started. If I can get the left side to ((A` ∪ B) ∩ A) before distribution that would work, but I'm not sure how to get there!

Thanks in advance for the help, I just need help getting this question started!
 
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  • #2
i'm not totally convinced after a quick look:

((A ∪ B) ∩ A) = (A ∩ A) ∪ (B ∩ A) = (A) ∪ (A ∩ B) =...

(A ∩ A') ∪ (A ∩ B) = (empty) ∪ (A ∩ B) =...

assume you can pick an element a in A, that is not in B. Its in the 1st, but not in the 2nd?
 
Last edited:
  • #3
JoeRocket said:
Hi Everyone!

I would really appreciate some help with this set proof.

Homework Statement



Show that, for any sets A, B, ((A ∪ B) ∩ A) = (A ∩ A') ∪ (A ∩ B).
(Hint: Remember that a complement of a complement is just the original set.)
You can't prove it- it's not true!

If A and B are disjoint the [itex]A\cap B[/itex] is empty and, of course, [itex]A\cap A'[/itex] is empty. If A and B are disjoint, then the right side is the empty set. But A is always a subset of [itex]A\cup B[/itex] so [itex](A\cup B)\cap A= A[/itex].

As a counter example, let A= {1, 2, 3, 4} and B= {0} in the set of integers. Then [itex]A\cap A'= \Phi[/itex], and [itex]A\cap B= \Phi[/itex] so [itex](A\cap A')\cup (A\cap B)[/itex][itex]= \Phi[/itex]. But on the left, [itex]A\cup B= \{0, 1, 2, 3, 4\}[/itex] so [itex](A\cup B)\cap A= \{0, 1, 2, 3, 4\}\cap \{1, 2, 3, 4\}= \{1, 2, 3, 4\}= A[/itex].

Your hint mentions "complement of a complement" but you have no "complement of a complement" in the problem. Perhaps you have miscopied the problem.

Homework Equations



I can use any sentential calculus rules to prove this equality.

The Attempt at a Solution



I think that the key to this problem is to use the SC distribution rule. But using distribution on the left yields (A ∩ A) ∪ (A ∩ B), and I can't think of anyway to get the left side to (A ∩ A'). There is a hint with the question about complements of complements, but I don't see how to use that. I have tried variations of double negation and still can't get it started. If I can get the left side to ((A` ∪ B) ∩ A) before distribution that would work, but I'm not sure how to get there!

Thanks in advance for the help, I just need help getting this question started!
 
  • #4
You two are my heroes. I started looking into the more because I believed the same thing. I copied the question from my online class system into this forum, but then I found that he had entered the questions online wrong. Else where in our class literature, the question is written as ((A ∪ B) ∩ A) = (A ∩ A'') ∪ (A ∩ B), which I can solve.

I think I learned more from the original, wrong question!

Thanks again for the help.
 

1. What is a set theory equality?

A set theory equality is a statement that two sets contain the same elements and have the same cardinality, meaning they have the same number of elements. In other words, the two sets are identical.

2. How do you prove a set theory equality?

To prove a set theory equality, you must show that both sets have the same elements and that the number of elements in each set is the same. This can be done through direct proof, where you show that each element in one set is also in the other set, or by using set operations such as union, intersection, and subset to show that the two sets are equivalent.

3. What is the difference between set theory equality and set theory equivalence?

Set theory equality means that two sets are identical, while set theory equivalence means that two sets have the same elements, but may not necessarily have the same cardinality. In other words, they may not have the same number of elements. Set theory equivalence is a weaker condition than set theory equality.

4. Can set theory equality be proven using a counterexample?

No, set theory equality cannot be proven using a counterexample. A counterexample is a specific instance where a statement is false, but it does not prove that the statement is always false. In order to prove set theory equality, you must show that the statement is true for all possible cases, rather than just one instance.

5. Why is it important to prove set theory equality?

Proving set theory equality is important because it allows us to make precise statements about sets and their properties. It also helps us to understand the relationships between different sets and can be used to solve problems in various fields such as mathematics, computer science, and engineering.

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