Proving Basis of Av with Invertible A Matrix

  • Thread starter Thread starter Chris Rorres
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Basis Matrix
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

In the discussion, participants explore the proof that if A is an invertible matrix and (v1, v2, ..., vn) forms a basis for Rn, then (Av1, Av2, ..., Avn) also constitutes a basis for Rn. The key steps involve demonstrating that the set (Av1, Av2, ..., Avn) spans Rn and is linearly independent. The proof hinges on the properties of invertible matrices, particularly that the kernel of an invertible matrix is trivial, which directly supports the linear independence of the transformed vectors.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of linear algebra concepts such as basis, span, and linear independence.
  • Knowledge of properties of invertible matrices, specifically their kernels.
  • Familiarity with matrix-vector multiplication and its implications on vector spaces.
  • Basic proof techniques in mathematics, particularly in the context of vector spaces.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of invertible matrices in detail, focusing on their kernels and image.
  • Learn about linear transformations and how they affect bases in vector spaces.
  • Explore examples of proving linear independence using matrix transformations.
  • Investigate the implications of the Rank-Nullity Theorem in relation to invertible matrices.
USEFUL FOR

Students of linear algebra, mathematics educators, and anyone interested in understanding the foundational concepts of vector spaces and matrix transformations.

Chris Rorres
Messages
4
Reaction score
0
If A is an invertible matrix and vectors (v1,v2,...,vn) is a basis for Rn, prove that (Av1,Av2,...,Avn) is also a basis for Rn.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hi Chris! :wink:

Show us how far you get, and where you're stuck, and then we'll know how to help! :smile:
 
why don't threads like this get moved to homework?
 
Just lazy mentors!
 
I need to prove that (Av1,Av2,...,Avn) spans and that it is linearly independent but this proof is so confusing to me that i don't even know where to start doing that.
 
You need to show that b* A(v_1) + ... b_n A(v_n) = 0 implies b_1 ... b_n equals zero, right? Well, you know since A is invertible, what is it's kernal?
 

Similar threads

Replies
17
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 40 ·
2
Replies
40
Views
6K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
5K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K