Proving Direct Proportion of \frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y} with \frac{1}{x}

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The discussion centers on proving that \(\frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{y}\) is directly proportional to \(\frac{1}{x}\). Initially, there is confusion about the definition of proportionality, with emphasis on the need for a constant relationship between the variables. The key realization is that if \(y\) is proportional to \(x\), then \(\frac{1}{y}\) is also proportional to \(\frac{1}{x}\), leading to the conclusion that \(\frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{y} \propto \frac{1}{x}\). The conversation also touches on misunderstandings of proportionality in physical formulas, highlighting the importance of clarity in mathematical definitions. Ultimately, the proof is confirmed with the correct understanding of the relationship between the variables involved.
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This seems to be a simple question. But I'm rather dubious at a particular step.
The question is: Prove
\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y} is directly proportional to \frac{1}{x}

This how I went about it:
\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}=\frac{y-x}{xy}
\frac{y-x}{xy}=[\frac{y-x}{y}]\frac{1}{x}

Can we say the quantity on the right hand side is proportional to \frac{1}{x}?
 
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Well, what does proportional mean?
 
I'll give a more practical definition: If the quantity on the right hand side increases or decreases then the quantity on the left hand side also increases or decreases.There is a constant which can be any real number which relates the two quantites.

Now, in context to this question: Can you call the term in the parenthesis a 'constant' since both 'x' and 'y' are variables?
 
So when you say

a \propto b

you mean that there's some k independent of a and b such that

a = k b?

or to be more precise, a \propto b iff \frac{da}{db} is constant.

Then

\frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{y} \propto \frac{1}{x}

is indeed false.

For example, just let u = \frac{1}{x}, and v = \frac{1}{y}. Then your question is to prove

u - v \propto u

which is silly unless v \propto u (easy to prove), and presumably y is independent of x in your question~

I imagine that your teacher isn't using that definition for proportionality, because otherwise he/she is being very silly~
 
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I know this a silly sum. But I think more precise definition of proportionality would be the geometrical one:

y \propto x

y = m x
m is the slope. With variable y on y-axis and variable x on x-axis.
 
Yeah, that's the same as the one I gave in a different form :smile:

y \propto x \Longleftrightarrow \frac{dy}{dx} \ \mbox{is constant}
 
Nope,in the way it's formulated,it definitely doesn't match our understanding of direct proportionality.

Daniel.
 
Of course the x and y above are different from the question.
The result of this question seems obivious by your second method and you can get a straight line on a graph considering :
\frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{y}
on y-axis &
\frac{1}{x}
on x-axis.
 
Actually, my definition doesn't work! Ignore it! That's what I get for staying up all night writing lab reports.

Your geometrical one is fine though. They aren't the same, I'm just silly when I haven't slept in a day :wink:
 
  • #10
Nope,direct proportionality means

a \propto b \leftrightarrow a=k b,k\in R^{*}_{+}

Daniel.
 
  • #11
What's R^{*}_{+}?

'k' can be any real number, right?
 
  • #12
The real positive semiaxis.

\mathbb{R}_{+}^{*}=:\{x\in \mathbb{R}| x>0 \}

Daniel.
 
  • #13
But the spring constant 'k' in the restoring force of an oscillating body is given by:
F = -kx , x-displacement
 
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  • #14
That's not a correct formula.F=-kx.It's not a direct proportionality.As "x" increases,the force decreases & viceversa.

Daniel.
 
  • #15
Reshma said:
This seems to be a simple question. But I'm rather dubious at a particular step.
The question is: Prove
\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y} is directly proportional to \frac{1}{x}

This how I went about it:
\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}=\frac{y-x}{xy}
\frac{y-x}{xy}=[\frac{y-x}{y}]\frac{1}{x}

Can we say the quantity on the right hand side is proportional to \frac{1}{x}?
No, because \frac{y-x}{y} is not a constant. A change in x changes both terms.
 
  • #16
The solution

I have found the solution to this question. The problem was the crucial 'missing' component. Now, don't blame me, the source of this question is a very bad text. Let me demonstrate how 'excruciatingly' simple the solution is.

The missing component:

y \propto x

Now the proof:

y \propto x
Hence;
\frac{1}{y} \propto\frac{1}{x}
So;
\frac{1}{y} \ = k \frac{1}{x}
k= constant

Consider,
\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}

\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y} = \frac{1}{x} - k \frac{1}{x}

Hence;
\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y} = (1-k)\frac{1}{x}

Finally,
(\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y})\propto\frac{1}{x}

Voila... :biggrin:!
 
  • #17
You mean "voilà"...:wink: Yeah,hopefully you'll be more careful in the future.You had us all puzzled...

Daniel.
 
  • #18
Or as teenagers nowadays like to say "Viola"! I figure about 10% of them know it's a joke, the other 90% really think that's the correct pronunciation of "voilà".
 
  • #19
Well, I don't have a French PC.
 
  • #20
What is direct proportionality?
In ordinary life I understand it.For example if I buy more tickets i will more pay.But in physical formula I don t understand it.For example in formula of momentum we have p=m*v.But why is there " * "?Why not "+"?That means p=m+v?I know that is stupid question,but I m down.
From what is this formula,p=m*v derived?
Thanks
 
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