Reshma
- 749
- 6
This seems to be a simple question. But I'm rather dubious at a particular step.
The question is: Prove
\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y} is directly proportional to \frac{1}{x}
This how I went about it:
\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}=\frac{y-x}{xy}
\frac{y-x}{xy}=[\frac{y-x}{y}]\frac{1}{x}
Can we say the quantity on the right hand side is proportional to \frac{1}{x}?
The question is: Prove
\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y} is directly proportional to \frac{1}{x}
This how I went about it:
\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}=\frac{y-x}{xy}
\frac{y-x}{xy}=[\frac{y-x}{y}]\frac{1}{x}
Can we say the quantity on the right hand side is proportional to \frac{1}{x}?