QM: 1D Potential Well Spring - Energy Levels

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a quantum mechanics problem involving a one-dimensional potential well described by a harmonic oscillator potential, specifically V(x) = mw²x²/2, with the additional constraint that the potential becomes infinite for x<0. Participants are exploring the energy levels of this modified system.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to derive the energy levels based on the potential setup and discusses the implications of the infinite potential at x<0. Other participants question the boundary conditions at x=0 and clarify the requirements for the wave function and its continuity.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights into boundary conditions and the nature of the wave function. Some guidance has been offered regarding the continuity of the wave function at the boundary, and the original poster has indicated that they received credit for their work, suggesting a productive exchange.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the implications of the potential constraints and the specific boundary conditions that arise from the problem setup. There is an emphasis on distinguishing between the potential and the behavior of the wave function in the context of quantum mechanics.

RJLiberator
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Homework Statement


1D Potential V(x) = mw^2x^2/2, part of a harmonic oscillator.
Suppose that the spring can only be stretched, so that the potential becomes V=infinity for x<0. What are the energy levels of this system?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



I argued my way though this problem by the following:
We know that V(x) = infinity
V(0) = 0
V(x) = 0 otherwise

From our typical energy levels we know E_n = ħw(n+1/2) for n=0,1,2,3,...

But there is a barrier at x =0. Therefore we need x=0 to have E=0.
Energy levels are thus:
E_n = ħw(n+1/2) with n=1,3,5,7,...

One can see this though the wave function graphs: https://i.stack.imgur.com/rb340.gif

Is that argued properly? Did I find the right solution?
 
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What are the boundary conditions at ##x=0## ?
 
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BvU said:
What are the boundary conditions at ##x=0## ?
I thought it was V(0) = 0. Did I interpret this incorrectly? Since the spring can only be stretched and not compressed?
 
I mean the conditions imposed on the solution . You want to make a distinction between the independent variable ##x## and the solution ##\ \psi(x) \ ## that has to satisfy a second order equation (##\ {\mathcal H}\psi = E\psi\ ## in your case) plus two boundary conditions.
 
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I don't want to confuse you, though: your line of thinking is correct; it's just the wording that is unfortunate:
The solution for x < 0 is ##\ \Psi(x) = 0\ ## and at ##\ x=0 \ ## the boundary condition is that the ##\ \Psi \ ## has to be continuous.

The first derivative does not have to be continuous at ##\ x=0 \ ## because the potential function isn't continuous either (I silently hope a theoretician will improve on this somewhat).

At the turning point (Where ##\ V(x) = E\ ##) the situation is different and both ##\ \Psi \ ## and its first derivative have to be continuous.
 
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@BvU sorry for not getting back to you earlier in this thread -- but your help was spot on. It was a much more basic question then I assumed and I got full credit for it, partially thanks to your guidance.
Cheers.
 
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