QM: Infinitesimal Generator for Scale Transformation

brooke1525
Messages
15
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



The scale transformation is a continuous transformation which acts on a function f(x) according to

D_{s}f(x) = f(sx)

where s is a real number. There is a continuous family of such transformations, including the identity transformation corresponding to s = 1. Calculate the infinitesimal generator for scale transformation in terms of familiar quantum operators.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



This question was in a foreign language to me. I don't recall ever hearing of such a thing as an 'infinitesimal generator' in my quantum mechanics course, so I have absolutely NO clue what this question means or how to do it. Any guidance is much appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
To demonstrate how we found the generator, let's consider the case of the translation operator

T(x)[f(x)] = f(x-a) (translation by a)

For an infinitesimal translation \delta

T(\delta)[f(x)] = f(x-\delta) = f(x) - \delta \frac{df(x)}{dx} = \left( 1 - \delta \frac{d}{dx} \right) f(x) = \left( 1 - i\delta\frac{p}{\hbar} \right) f(x)

In this case, \frac{p}{\hbar} (or just p) is called the generator of the infinitesimal translation.

Maybe you can proceed accordingly for the scale trasformation?

For further information you may consider any graduate-level textbooks for QM. (e.g. Sakurai)
 
Last edited:
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top