- #1
escryan
- 13
- 0
I'm just curious as to how
[tex]
\int (\frac{1}{1+x^{2}}) dx
[/tex]
comes to be
[tex]
\tan^{-1} (x)
[/tex]
I was able to find the formula on a table of integrals, but I'd just like to know why it works like this, and why we can't use a natural log rule or a substitution method to find this out.
Thanks for reading!
[tex]
\int (\frac{1}{1+x^{2}}) dx
[/tex]
comes to be
[tex]
\tan^{-1} (x)
[/tex]
I was able to find the formula on a table of integrals, but I'd just like to know why it works like this, and why we can't use a natural log rule or a substitution method to find this out.
Thanks for reading!