- #1
Wes Tausend
Gold Member
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[Moderator's note: This thread has been separated out from the FAQ entry since questions or suggestions about FAQ entries should not be cluttering up the FAQ entries themselves.]
I would like to suggest that it might be more proper to base the "rest frame of a photon" theory explanation entirely on the PF Rules regarding conventional public peer-review and just say we follow Einstein because of that. It seems preferable to leave it open, rather than adding a weak member derived theory of "what it looks like".
If energy and matter are interchangeable and certainly directly related (they are), it seems to me that if we reduce the theoretical situation to one elementary particle of matter and one elementary particle of energy related by a certain speed in our universe, that they could inexplicably move relative rather than exclusive to one another. Most important, if we are to properly follow the Copernican principle, the two could (and should) be reasoned to be relative to one another.
So unless the fundamental FAQ-given reasoning is made more rigorous in depth, we should just fall back on Einstein's limited SR where he apparently believed (or at least states as axiom) a particle of energy is somehow immune to the conventional foundation principle of relativity as one of his first principles. Einstein didn't fully explain why relativity should only work this one way, just that it does (at the least) unfortunately work in a rather non-intuitive manner. So why should we need to try to improve his explanation to reject ordinary relativity, while also accidently flying in the face of our PF rules?
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To accentuate my point on why I think the FAQ reasoning weak, let me re-word the original PF FAQ premise argument in terms of faulty pre-Copernican era reasoning:
Q: I've read that in relativity the concept of the rest frame of a star doesn't make sense. Why is that?
A: A rest frame of some object is a reference frame in which the object's velocity is zero. One of the key axioms of Ptolemy's (Aristotle's) relativity is that a star moves across the sky in all reference frames. The rest frame of a star would require the star to both be at rest (velocity=0) and moving at high speed across the sky. That of course is contradictory. In other words, the concept doesn't make sense.
Using the "known firmament" as his first principle, Aristotle argues that obviously Earth appears to be standing still and thereby must be considered at rest. He concludes in error, therefore only stars move. According to Aristotle, and our present FAQ, what it initially looks like... must be what it is. The FAQ reasoning might appeal to us, but in light of the Copernican principle, I find it fundamentally weak.
Wes
D H said:I've read that in relativity the concept of the rest frame of a photon doesn't make sense. Why is that?
A rest frame of some object is a reference frame in which the object's velocity is zero. One of the key axioms of special relativity is that light moves at c in all reference frames. The rest frame of a photon would require the photon to be at rest (velocity=0) and moving at c (velocity=299792458 m/s). That of course is contradictory. In other words, the concept doesn't make sense.The following forum members have contributed to this FAQ:
D H
Dale
Fredrik
Pallen
I would like to suggest that it might be more proper to base the "rest frame of a photon" theory explanation entirely on the PF Rules regarding conventional public peer-review and just say we follow Einstein because of that. It seems preferable to leave it open, rather than adding a weak member derived theory of "what it looks like".
If energy and matter are interchangeable and certainly directly related (they are), it seems to me that if we reduce the theoretical situation to one elementary particle of matter and one elementary particle of energy related by a certain speed in our universe, that they could inexplicably move relative rather than exclusive to one another. Most important, if we are to properly follow the Copernican principle, the two could (and should) be reasoned to be relative to one another.
So unless the fundamental FAQ-given reasoning is made more rigorous in depth, we should just fall back on Einstein's limited SR where he apparently believed (or at least states as axiom) a particle of energy is somehow immune to the conventional foundation principle of relativity as one of his first principles. Einstein didn't fully explain why relativity should only work this one way, just that it does (at the least) unfortunately work in a rather non-intuitive manner. So why should we need to try to improve his explanation to reject ordinary relativity, while also accidently flying in the face of our PF rules?
---------
To accentuate my point on why I think the FAQ reasoning weak, let me re-word the original PF FAQ premise argument in terms of faulty pre-Copernican era reasoning:
Q: I've read that in relativity the concept of the rest frame of a star doesn't make sense. Why is that?
A: A rest frame of some object is a reference frame in which the object's velocity is zero. One of the key axioms of Ptolemy's (Aristotle's) relativity is that a star moves across the sky in all reference frames. The rest frame of a star would require the star to both be at rest (velocity=0) and moving at high speed across the sky. That of course is contradictory. In other words, the concept doesn't make sense.
Using the "known firmament" as his first principle, Aristotle argues that obviously Earth appears to be standing still and thereby must be considered at rest. He concludes in error, therefore only stars move. According to Aristotle, and our present FAQ, what it initially looks like... must be what it is. The FAQ reasoning might appeal to us, but in light of the Copernican principle, I find it fundamentally weak.
Wes
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