Rolling Motion of Ring, Disk, Sphere: tr<td<ts

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the rolling motion of a ring, disk, and sphere of the same mass and radius as they roll down an inclined plane. Participants are examining the relationship between their moments of inertia and the time taken to reach the bottom of the incline.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the relationship between torque, moment of inertia, and angular acceleration. There is an exploration of whether the moment of inertia affects the acceleration and consequently the time taken to roll down the incline.

Discussion Status

Some participants are questioning the assumptions regarding the constancy of moment of inertia and its implications for angular acceleration. There is a recognition of the need for clarification on the relationship between moment of inertia and time taken, with some guidance offered regarding the inverse relationship.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating through the implications of the moment of inertia being constant for each shape and how that affects the rolling motion. There is a mention of potential confusion regarding the proportionality of angular acceleration to moment of inertia.

Avaron Cooper
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1. A ring , a disk and a sphere all of same mass and radius, with moments of inertia Ir, Id, Is respectively about their axes, roll down without slipping on an inclined plane from a given height. If the time taken for the ring, disk and sphere to reach the bottom of the plane are tr, td and ts respectively, then
1)tr<td<ts
2)tr=td=ts
3)tr>td>ts
4)tr>td=ts
5)tr>td<ts

Homework Equations


. torque=moment of inertia*angular acceleration

The Attempt at a Solution


I took the torque acting on the objects to be the same theefore moment of inertia to be indirectly proportional to angular acc.

Ir>Id>Is
therefore:
tr<td<ts

If anyone show where I went wrong, it'll be of great help.
 
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Avaron Cooper said:
I took the torque acting on the objects to be the same theefore moment of inertia to be indirectly proportional to angular acc.

Can you explain? The moment of inertia of an object is normally a constant that depends on the objects shape (among other things). For example if you spin up a flywheel it's moment of inertia doesn't change.
 
CWatters said:
Can you explain? The moment of inertia of an object is normally a constant that depends on the objects shape (among other things). For example if you spin up a flywheel it's moment of inertia doesn't change.
Since the radii of the objects are equal and their masses are equal, i took the torque acting on them to be equal.
 
CWatters said:
Can you explain? The moment of inertia of an object is normally a constant that depends on the objects shape (among other things). For example if you spin up a flywheel it's moment of inertia doesn't change.
therefore considering torque= I * Angular acc. , I took angular acc is indirectly proportional to I
 
Avaron Cooper said:
I took the torque acting on the objects to be the same theefore moment of inertia to be indirectly proportional to angular acc.
I think you meant to say "inversely proportional".

So if the accelerations are smaller for larger moments of inertia, what does that do to the time?
 
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paisiello2 said:
I think you meant to say "inversely proportional".

So if the accelerations are smaller for larger moments of inertia, what does that do to the time?
oh.. Stupid me.. Smaller accelerations means longer time.. Thank you very much!
 
:smile:
 
 
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paisiello2 said:

Thank you very much!
 

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