shohin
- 6
- 0
hi,
a doubt regarding rolling motion of a ball down the incline has been giving me sleepless nights for a couple of days now, here is it-
if a perfect sphere is placed on an inclined plane with angle of inclination x (say), its translation of the CM, and rotation can be treated seperately, now if the frictional force acting on the bottommost point equals the gravity component down the incline, then the centre of mass(CM) should not accelerate as they result into 0, but however the torque would exist causing the ball to rotate(gravity will not create torque offcourse), this means that the body wud not move down but rotate at the fixed position with slipping,
However this does not happen as the ball moves down with rolling
WHY?
tnk u
a doubt regarding rolling motion of a ball down the incline has been giving me sleepless nights for a couple of days now, here is it-
if a perfect sphere is placed on an inclined plane with angle of inclination x (say), its translation of the CM, and rotation can be treated seperately, now if the frictional force acting on the bottommost point equals the gravity component down the incline, then the centre of mass(CM) should not accelerate as they result into 0, but however the torque would exist causing the ball to rotate(gravity will not create torque offcourse), this means that the body wud not move down but rotate at the fixed position with slipping,
However this does not happen as the ball moves down with rolling
WHY?
tnk u