Schrodinger equation and free particles

kehler
Messages
103
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Show whether the functions
psi_I = A cos(kx - wt)
psi_II = A sin(kx - wt)
are solutions of Schrodinger equation for a free particle

Homework Equations


Schrodinger equation

The Attempt at a Solution


For psi_I = A cos(kx - wt),
d2psi_I/dx2 = -Ak2psi[/SUB]I[/SUB]
dpsi_I/dt = Awsin(kx - wt)
Substituting into S.E,
ih_bar Awsin(kx - wt) = ((h_bar)2/2m) Ak2psi_I + 0 psi (free particle so V=O)
So it doesn't satisfy the S.E.

For psi_II = A sin(kx - wt),
d2psi_II/dx2 = -Ak2psi[/SUB]II[/SUB]
dpsi_II/dt = -Awcos(kx - wt)
Substituting into S.E,
ih_bar -Awcos(kx - wt) = ((h_bar)2/2m) Ak2psi_II + 0 psi
So it doesn't satisfy the S.E either.

Is this correct? Or is there some way that I'm supposed to manipulate both sides to equal each other? :S
 
Physics news on Phys.org
hi kehler

as you've shown, they will not be a solution of the Time Independent SE for a free particle by themselves...

How about a linear combination of the 2 states? ie
\psi = C\psi_1 + D\psi_2

what do C & D have to staisfy to be a solution...?
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top