Integral of 1/(1-xy): Pi2/6 from 0 to 1

In summary, the integral of 1/(1-xy) from 0 to 1 is equal to Pi squared over 6. This integral can be solved using the substitution method and integration by parts, resulting in the final answer of Pi squared over 6. This integral is commonly used in various areas of mathematics, including calculus and analysis.
  • #1
joemama69
399
0

Homework Statement



show what integral of 1/(1-xy)dxdy = pi2/6

dx 0 to 1
dy 0 to 1

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution

 
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  • #2
Doesn't look like a hard integral. What have you tried?
 
  • #3
[tex]\int[/tex]1/(1-xy)dx = ln(1-xy) = ln(1-y) - ln1

[tex]\int[/tex]ln(1-y) - ln1 dy = (1-y)ln(1-y) - (1- y) - yln1

= -ln1 - (ln1 - 1) = = -2ln1 + 1 huh
 
  • #4
joemama69 said:
[tex]\int[/tex]1/(1-xy)dx = ln(1-xy) = ln(1-y) - ln1

[tex]\int[/tex]ln(1-y) - ln1 dy = (1-y)ln(1-y) - (1- y) - yln1

= -ln1 - (ln1 - 1) = = -2ln1 + 1 huh

remember

[tex]\int[/tex]f '(x)/f(x) dx = ln[f(x)] for your 1st integral, also you're taking y constant, so treat it like one
 
  • #5
1/(1-xy) = sum from n= 0 to infinity of x^n y^n

The integral is thus the sum from n = 0 to infinity of 1/(n+1)^2 which is pi^2/6
 
  • #6
The first integration isn't correct. You can see that immediately by differentiating the primitive. Use a substitution if you don't see it right away, [itex]u=1-xy,du=-ydx[/itex]. The hard part comes after this however. Hint: Use the power series of the logarithm.

Edit: Use Count's method it's quicker and easier.
 
  • #7
ok so your saying

1(1-xy) = [tex]\sum[/tex]xnyn from n = 0 to infinity

[tex]\int\int[/tex]1/(1-xy) = [tex]\sum[/tex]1/(n+1)2 = pi2/6

how does 1/(1-xy) go to the sum of xnyn

and how does 1/(1-xy) got to the sum of (n+1)2 then go to pi2/2
 
  • #8
Ok let's say z=xy, then [tex] \frac{1}{1-xy}= \frac{1}{1-z}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty z^n=\sum_{n=0}^\infty (xy)^n=\sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n y^n[/tex]. Then you take the integral over the sum.

[tex]\int_0^1 \int_0^1 \sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n y^n dxdy=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \left(\int_0^1 \int_0^1 x^n y^n dxdy\right)[/tex]. Can you see how to continue from here?

Edit: I think you're expected to know that the series converges to pi^2/6 by heart. However http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basel_problem shows you how to get to that value in case you're interested.
 
Last edited:
  • #9
oops i think i forgot something

the entire problem is

show that

[tex]\int\int[/tex]1/(1-xy)dxdy = pi2/6

by doing the double substitution

x = (u - v)/[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex] and y = (u + v)/[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]

This amounts to rotating the axes cuonterclockwise through the angle pi/4
 

1. What is the integral of 1/(1-xy)?

The integral of 1/(1-xy) is Pi²/6 from 0 to 1.

2. How do you solve the integral of 1/(1-xy)?

The integral of 1/(1-xy) can be solved using the substitution method, where u = 1-xy and du = -xdy. This results in the integral becoming -∫(1/u)du, which can then be solved using basic integration rules.

3. What is the significance of the limits 0 to 1 in the integral of 1/(1-xy)?

The limits 0 to 1 represent the range of values for which the integral is being evaluated. In this case, the integral is being evaluated from 0 to 1, which means the area under the curve is being calculated for the interval between 0 and 1 on the x-axis.

4. Why is the result of the integral of 1/(1-xy) in terms of Pi?

The result of the integral of 1/(1-xy) in terms of Pi is due to the use of trigonometric identities in the integration process. These identities involve Pi and result in the final answer being expressed in terms of Pi.

5. Can the integral of 1/(1-xy) be solved using other methods?

Yes, the integral of 1/(1-xy) can also be solved using partial fractions or by using the method of integration by parts. However, the substitution method is the most commonly used and efficient method for solving this integral.

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