Show that double integral does not exist

bombz
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Homework Statement



Here are my problems.[PLAIN]http://img256.imageshack.us/img256/2254/whatua.jpg

Homework Equations



possible conversions to polar coordinates but I doubt that's needed. Fubini's theorem?

The Attempt at a Solution



So for the h(x,y) integral does not exist, I got this:

i took the first integral with respect to y and I came up with (Integral)(bound 0 to infinity) of [LN (1+x^2 +y^2)/(2*y)] evaluated from 0 to infinity. As that is not possible, the limit does not exist.. correct? I have no clue how to show it properly.

The second part, I have no clue at all. The stupid piecewise functions i do not understand
 
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bombz said:

Homework Statement



Here are my problems.


[PLAIN]http://img256.imageshack.us/img256/2254/whatua.jpg

Homework Equations



possible conversions to polar coordinates but I doubt that's needed. Fubini's theorem?


The Attempt at a Solution



So for the h(x,y) integral does not exist, I got this:

i took the first integral with respect to y and I came up with (Integral)(bound 0 to infinity) of [LN (1+x^2 +y^2)/(2*y)] evaluated from 0 to infinity. As that is not possible, the limit does not exist.. correct? I have no clue how to show it properly.
This looks wrong to me. I think you are trying to say something like this:\int \frac{dx}{1 + x^2} = ln(1 + x^2)

It is not at all true that the integral of 1/<whatever> = ln(whatever).
bombz said:
The second part, I have no clue at all. The stupid piecewise functions i do not understand
 
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I immediately think polar coordinates when I see that:

\int_0^{\infty}\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{r}{1+r^2}drdt

\pi/2\int_0^{\infty} \frac{r}{1+r^2}dr

\pi/4\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{u}du

\pi/4(\infty-0)

bingo-bango.
 
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You may also integrate in the following way:

I = \int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+y^2}}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{1+(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+y^2}})^2}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+y^2}}dxdy

= \int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+y^2}}[\arctan(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+y^2}})]|_{0}^{\infty}dy

= \frac{\pi}{2}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{ \sqrt{1+y^2}}dy

Let y = \tan\theta, then \frac{1}{\sqrt{1+y^2}} = \cos\theta, thus

I = \frac{\pi}{2}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\cos\theta \sec\theta \tan\theta d\theta

= \frac{\pi}{2}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\tan\theta d\theta = -\frac{\pi}{2}[\ln\cos\theta]|_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} = -\frac{\pi}{2} [-\infty - 0] Done.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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