skaterboy1 said:
Thank you very much for your help!
I´m now learning the big M method and learning about the radiation therapy problem where the ≤ isn´t always that way but it´s also ≥.
See pictureI was wondering if the big M method was the only way to solve it when it looks like this or could i solve it by using the tabular form?
And if I use the tabular form, would I also put -x5 +x6 in the bottom line where it looks like this: ≥ ?
In introductory textbooks there are two methods discussed: (1) the 2-phase method; and (2) the big-M method. The two-phase method deals with the following two questions: (a) is the problem feasible at all, and if it is, what is a basic feasible solution; then (b) if feasible, go to optimality. (a) is Phase I and (b) [if needed] is Phase II. Here are two little related examples:
(I) max x1 + x2 + x3
st
2*x1 + 4*x2 + x3 <= 8
2*x1 + x2 + 2*x3 >= 8
2*x1 + 3*x2 + 4*x3 >= 30
x1,x2,x3 >= 0
(II) Same as (I), except change 30 on RHS of third constraint to 34.
Question: is (I) a feasible problem? One way is to solve a Phase I problem:
min a2 + a3 <----Phase I objective.
st
2*x1 + 4*x2 + x3 + s1 = 8
2*x1 + x2 + 2*x3 -s2 + a2 = 8
2*x1 + 3*x2 + 4*x3 - s3 + a3 = 30
x1,x2,x3,s1,s2,s3,a2,a3,>=0.
Here, s1 is a slack variable, s2 and s3 are surplus variables and a2, a3 are artificial variables. If the optimal phase I objective is > 0 that means that it is impossible to have both artificial variables = 0, so it is impossible to satisfy all of the original constraints; that is, the original problem is infeasible. However, if the optimal Phase I objective = 0, it is possible to have all artificial vars = 0, so the original problem is feasible; furthermore, the output solution to Phase I is a basic feasible solution to the original problem, which can the be used to start Phase II (the optimization phase). Phase I just forgets about the original objective until it has been determined whether or not the problem is even feasible; after all, if it is infeasible, the objective does not matter.
The Phase I problem for (II) is similar, except it has 34 on the right of the 3rd equation. If we solve both problems, we find: (I) is feasible, but (II) is infeasible. Neither statement is "obvious" when you first look at these problems.
The big-M method tries to combine Phases I and II in a single problem.
Real-world, commercial-scale LP codes do not actually use either of these methods; some of them start with infeasible solutions (having one or more negative vars which are supposed to be >= 0) and use modified simplex steps to try to reduce the amount of infeasiblilty. But, those are details best left to more advanced treatments.
RGV