Engineering Solving a DC Circuit with OpAmp

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around solving a DC circuit involving an operational amplifier (op-amp) and multiple resistors. The main challenge is determining the potential at node b and the current through the 6kΩ resistor, which complicates calculations for node d. Initial assumptions about the resistors being in parallel lead to inconsistencies in voltage calculations, particularly at node d, which appears to yield a nonsensical result of 0V. The participants clarify the role of the op-amp's input current and the potential divider effect, leading to a revised understanding of the circuit. Ultimately, they conclude that the calculations can be adjusted to find the correct values for all currents and voltages in the circuit.
doublemint
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Hey everyone,

I am trying to solve for the circuit that I have attached.

So I know that for a opamp, it does not draw any currents into its input side and the nodes b and c are the same potential. To figure out the potential at node b, i need to know I_6, but that 6k resistor is messing everything up.

If I assume that the 6k resistor is parallel to other 6k resistors then I can solve for I_6=1 mA
However, if that is the case then I_12=1 mA as well. But that means that the resulting voltage at node d is 0...which does not make sense..
Furthermore, from node c, I can use that to solve for the potential at node d.

I cannot say all three 6k resistors are in series since from that diagram it does not seem to be unless the ground has to do something with it.

Am I missing something here?

Here is my math:

V_a=12V
I_6=12V/12k = 1mA
therefore: V_b=V_c=6V
I_3=(V_c-3V)/3k = 1mA
V_d=V_c+9I_3=6+9=15V

this does not make sense since from V_a, I_12=1mA and that would result in V_d=0V...

DM
P.S sorry the diagram is so small!
 

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V_a=12V
This can't be right. Why ignore the current I to ground through the 6kΩ?
V_a=12 – I*6k

The potential divider with a pair of 6kΩ resistors gives
V_b=V_a / 2
This potential divider is unloaded because the current into the op-amp + input is so tiny.
 
Ok, that kinda makes sense to me.

So if I care my calculations with V_a=12 – I*6k,
V_c = V_b = 6-I*3k
V_d = V_c -3 +I_3*9k = 12-12I
V_a-I_12 = V_d --> I_12=0.5I
V_b = V_a -I_6*6k --> I_6 = 1-0.5I
Therefore I = I_12 + I_6 = 1 mA

This would mean that the potential at node d is zero. Can opamps do that?
 
V_d = V_c -3 +I_3*9k = 12-12I
12-12I https://www.physicsforums.com/images/icons/icon5.gif

I can't see it.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
well i calculated I_3 as (V_c-3V)/3k = (6-3I-3)/3 = 1-I

so subbing that into V_d = V_c -3 +I_3*9k = 6-3I-3+9(1-I) = 12-12I

unless i calculated I_3 wrong?
 
doublemint said:
well i calculated I_3 as (V_c-3V)/3k = (6-3I-3)/3 = 1-I

so subbing that into V_d = V_c -3[/color] +I_3*9k = 6-3I-3+9(1-I) = 12-12I
Check this.
 
I see, I could exclude the 3V source from the calculation of V_d which would make it 15-12I
So now,
V_a-I_12*12k = V_d = 15-12I
12-6I - I_12*12k = 15-12I
I_12 = 0.5I-0.25

Since V_b = V_a -I_6*6k --> I_6 = 1-0.5I
then I= I_12 +I_6 = 0.75

As for I_2,
It should simply just be I_2 = V_d/2k
and I could just find the value of every other current and voltage by subbing in I.
 
doublemint said:
then I= I_12 +I_6 = 0.75
correct
 

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