Solving Limits and Convergence: Doubts and Calculations Explained

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The discussion revolves around evaluating the limit of the function lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)} \frac {x*y} {|x|+|y|}, where the conclusion is that the limit is zero as both x and y approach zero. Concerns are raised about the correctness of this conclusion and the method used to arrive at it. Additionally, there is a query regarding the convergence of the integral ∫_{0}^{\infty} \frac {sin(x)} {cos(x)+x^2}, with suggestions to analyze the absolute convergence. The responses clarify that the limit is indeed zero and provide insights on the integral's convergence, emphasizing the need for careful evaluation of the integrand. Overall, the conversation highlights the importance of clear mathematical reasoning in limit and convergence problems.
pbialos
Hi, Today i had a test, and i was wondering if what i did is correct:

I had to tell if the :lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)} \frac {x*y} {|x|+|y|} exists. What i did was to say lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)} \frac {x*y} {|x|+|y|}=lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)} \frac {x} {|x|+|y|}*y=0 because it is bounded multiplied by y that tends to 0.
Is what i did correct?Something tells me it is not because it was too easy.

The second doubt i have is about the convergence of the Integral:
\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac {sin(x)} {cos(x)+x^2}
My doubt came since the integrand of the series is not always positive. Can i just calculate the convergence of:
\int_{0}^{\infty}|\frac {sin(x)} {cos(x)+x^2}| and if it converges, then the original integral also converges?
I would check the convergence of the second integral dividing it between 0-1 and 1-infinity. The integral on the first interval(between 0 and 1) would converge because the integrand is bounded and continuous for x between 0 and 1, and the integral of the second interval(between 1 and infinity) would also converge by comparison with \int_{1}^{\infty}\frac {1} {x^2-1}.

I would really appreciate any help.
Regards, Paul.
 
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I'm rusty on stuff like convergence, but what you did with the second problem seems right. However, are you sure that \int _1 ^{\infty }\frac{1}{x^2 - 1}\, dx converges?
 
Last edited:
AKG said:
On the other hand, approach along y = 0, you get:

\lim _{(x,0) \to (0,0)} \frac{0x}{|x| + |0|} = \lim _{x \to 0}\frac{0}{|x|} = \infty

Since the numerator is zero along that path, the limit will clearly also be zero along that path.

pbialos, I think you have the right idea. It is indeed not difficult, but the phrasing was a bit vague. It's not clear to me what you mean by "because it is bounded multiplied by y that tends to 0."

Try something like:

\left|\frac {xy} {|x|+|y|}\right|=|y| \frac{|x|}{|x|+|y|} \leq |y|
because |x|/(|x|+|y|) \leq 1. Since |y| approaches zero as (x,y) approaches (0,0), the limit is zero.
 
Galileo said:
Since the numerator is zero along that path, the limit will clearly also be zero along that path.
Yeah, I don't know what I was thinking... edited.
 
thank you

Many thanks for your responses. Yes, what Galileo said was my idea, although i expressed my self terribly bad.

Regards, Paul.
 
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