Tomer
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This isn't really a homework problem, just a form of writing I don't quite understand.
The Dirac equation is: ("natural units")
(i\gamma^{\mu}\partial_{mu}-m)\Psi = 0
When I try to build the conjugated equation, where \bar{\Psi} := \Psi^{+}\gamma^{0}, I get:
i\partial_{\mu}\bar{\Psi}\gamma^{\mu}+m\bar{\Psi} = 0
Which I've then verified and it seems correct.
However, some sources show the conjugated equation in this form:
\bar{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu}\partial_{\mu}-m) = 0
Now, I know that the scalar product is an invariant, but what I don't understand, is how I can simply shove this \bar{\Psi} to the left side of the equation... how can the operator acting on it be situated *after* it and what does it mean?
And where does that "-m" come from? I get "+m" and so did other sources I saw...
I'm sorry if this question is dumb - this whole thing is rather new to me.
Thanks a lot!
Tomer.
The Dirac equation is: ("natural units")
(i\gamma^{\mu}\partial_{mu}-m)\Psi = 0
When I try to build the conjugated equation, where \bar{\Psi} := \Psi^{+}\gamma^{0}, I get:
i\partial_{\mu}\bar{\Psi}\gamma^{\mu}+m\bar{\Psi} = 0
Which I've then verified and it seems correct.
However, some sources show the conjugated equation in this form:
\bar{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu}\partial_{\mu}-m) = 0
Now, I know that the scalar product is an invariant, but what I don't understand, is how I can simply shove this \bar{\Psi} to the left side of the equation... how can the operator acting on it be situated *after* it and what does it mean?
And where does that "-m" come from? I get "+m" and so did other sources I saw...
I'm sorry if this question is dumb - this whole thing is rather new to me.
Thanks a lot!
Tomer.