The Dirac equation and its conjugate

Tomer
Messages
198
Reaction score
0
This isn't really a homework problem, just a form of writing I don't quite understand.

The Dirac equation is: ("natural units")

(i\gamma^{\mu}\partial_{mu}-m)\Psi = 0

When I try to build the conjugated equation, where \bar{\Psi} := \Psi^{+}\gamma^{0}, I get:

i\partial_{\mu}\bar{\Psi}\gamma^{\mu}+m\bar{\Psi} = 0

Which I've then verified and it seems correct.

However, some sources show the conjugated equation in this form:

\bar{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu}\partial_{\mu}-m) = 0

Now, I know that the scalar product is an invariant, but what I don't understand, is how I can simply shove this \bar{\Psi} to the left side of the equation... how can the operator acting on it be situated *after* it and what does it mean?
And where does that "-m" come from? I get "+m" and so did other sources I saw...

I'm sorry if this question is dumb - this whole thing is rather new to me.

Thanks a lot!

Tomer.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The Dirac equation is an example of a first order linear partial differential equation, which means that the solution to the equation can be found by rearranging the terms in the equation. The conjugated equation is just the equation rearranged so that the \bar{\Psi} is on the left side of the equation. To do this, you can multiply both sides of the original equation by the gamma matrix and its inverse, so that the terms with \Psi cancel out, leaving the rearranged equation with \bar{\Psi}. The minus sign in the equation comes from the fact that the gamma matrix and its inverse are both anti-symmetric.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top