How Does the Theory of Relativity Explain Time Differences Between Cities?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion clarifies that time zones are not influenced by general relativity but are a practical means for standardizing time for trade and travel. The theory of relativity connects space and time, but time dilation occurs only between different inertial reference frames, which does not apply to two cities on Earth that are not in relative motion. The hour difference between cities is related to their positions relative to the sun rather than relativistic effects. The use of synchronized clocks, like cesium clocks, enhances accuracy in measuring time across different locations. Understanding these concepts can help clarify the relationship between time differences and the theory of relativity.
mystry4
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I need further explanation on the following so I can understand it more completely. I know that the theory of relativity /space and time are connected with the invention of the syncoronized clock and time zone division, and that Einstein originally used train travel to explain his theory (I am assuming this is correct - please tell me if I am wrong). My confusion is trying to explain the hour difference between two cities in relationship to this concept. Can anyone help get me further down my path? (or am I thinking too much? )
Thanks!
 
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Time zones have nothing to do with general relativity. They are simply ways of standardizing time so that trade and travel would... make sense.
 
and the most accurate way of timing the two events let's say a person observing and the person in the event (like in the rocket) is the cesium clock.
 
mystry4 said:
I need further explanation on the following so I can understand it more completely. I know that the theory of relativity /space and time are connected with the invention of the syncoronized clock and time zone division, and that Einstein originally used train travel to explain his theory (I am assuming this is correct - please tell me if I am wrong). My confusion is trying to explain the hour difference between two cities in relationship to this concept. Can anyone help get me further down my path? (or am I thinking too much? )
Thanks!
You are thinking too much. Two cities on the surface of the Earth are not in relative motion (ignoring curvature and rotation of the earth). So they are in the same inertial frame of reference. Time dilation only occurs between two different inertial reference frames. The difference in measured (solar) time relates to the angle of a line from the centre of the sun to the city to a line between the centre of the Earth and the centre of the sun.

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