Thread: Artinian Modules - Cohn Exercise 3, Section 2.2, page 65

Math Amateur
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
3,920
Reaction score
48
I am reading P.M. Cohn's book: Introduction to Ring Theory (Springer Undergraduate Mathematics Series) ... ...

I am currently focused on Section 2.2: Chain Conditions ... which deals with Artinian and Noetherian rings and modules ... ...

I need help to get started on Exercise 3, Section 2.2, page 65 ...

Exercise 3 (Section 2.2, page 65) reads as follows:
?temp_hash=993832e4c4defef2d49efe7560cf52d8.png
Any help will be much appreciated ...

Peter
 

Attachments

  • Cohn - Exercise 3, Section 2.2, page 65.png
    Cohn - Exercise 3, Section 2.2, page 65.png
    14.6 KB · Views: 491
Physics news on Phys.org
The same exercise is in my book (see your other thread). There Atiyah, Macdonald give the following hints:
Let ##φ : M → M## be the endomorphism. To prove the Noetherian case consider the submodules ##ker(φ^n)## and in the Artian case the quotient modules ##coker(φ^n) = M / im(φ^n) , n ∈ℕ.##
 
  • Like
Likes Math Amateur
##\textbf{Exercise 10}:## I came across the following solution online: Questions: 1. When the author states in "that ring (not sure if he is referring to ##R## or ##R/\mathfrak{p}##, but I am guessing the later) ##x_n x_{n+1}=0## for all odd $n$ and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible, so that ##x_n=0##" 2. How does ##x_nx_{n+1}=0## implies that ##x_{n+1}## is invertible and ##x_n=0##. I mean if the quotient ring ##R/\mathfrak{p}## is an integral domain, and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible then...
The following are taken from the two sources, 1) from this online page and the book An Introduction to Module Theory by: Ibrahim Assem, Flavio U. Coelho. In the Abelian Categories chapter in the module theory text on page 157, right after presenting IV.2.21 Definition, the authors states "Image and coimage may or may not exist, but if they do, then they are unique up to isomorphism (because so are kernels and cokernels). Also in the reference url page above, the authors present two...
When decomposing a representation ##\rho## of a finite group ##G## into irreducible representations, we can find the number of times the representation contains a particular irrep ##\rho_0## through the character inner product $$ \langle \chi, \chi_0\rangle = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g\in G} \chi(g) \chi_0(g)^*$$ where ##\chi## and ##\chi_0## are the characters of ##\rho## and ##\rho_0##, respectively. Since all group elements in the same conjugacy class have the same characters, this may be...
Back
Top