Time independent acceleration equation?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around the validity of a differential equation for time-independent acceleration. It highlights that the original equation presented is incorrect due to unit inconsistencies, as dV/dt represents acceleration while dV/(V dx) has units of inverse length. A suggested correction is dV/dx = (1/V)dV/dt, which aligns with the proper dimensional analysis. The participant acknowledges their mistake and clarifies the correct relationship as a = dV/dt = V dV/dx. This exchange emphasizes the importance of unit consistency in physics equations.
re444
Messages
14
Reaction score
0
Hi,

Is this differential equation valid for time independent acceleration"

a = dV/dt = dV/ (V dx) = ( dV / dx ) * (1/V) ?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
re444 said:
d = dV/dt = dV/ (V dx) = ( dV / dx ) * (1/V) ?
It's not quite clear what you're doing here. dV/dt has units of acceleration, while dV/(V dx) has units of 1/length. So your equation isn't valid.

Perhaps you're thinking of dV/dx = (1/V)dV/dt ?
 
Doc Al said:
It's not quite clear what you're doing here. dV/dt has units of acceleration, while dV/(V dx) has units of 1/length. So your equation isn't valid.

Perhaps you're thinking of dV/dx = (1/V)dV/dt ?

Oh ! my obvious fault: a = dV / dt = dV/ (dx / V) = V dV/dx .

thanks
 
Thread 'Is 'Velocity of Transport' a Recognized Term in English Mechanics Literature?'
Here are two fragments from Banach's monograph in Mechanics I have never seen the term <<velocity of transport>> in English texts. Actually I have never seen this term being named somehow in English. This term has a name in Russian books. I looked through the original Banach's text in Polish and there is a Polish name for this term. It is a little bit surprising that the Polish name differs from the Russian one and also differs from this English translation. My question is: Is there...
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...

Similar threads

Replies
14
Views
2K
Replies
19
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
6K
Replies
17
Views
1K
Replies
8
Views
995
Replies
12
Views
1K
Back
Top