Integral of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) from 0 to pi/2

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In summary: I can't read Defennder's post right now, but if it is what I did, then it is much more pedestrian.I like your's better too. Sorry again..In summary, the integral from 0 to pi/2 of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) can be solved by using the identity for definite integrals and the trigonometric identity to simplify the expression. After applying the identity, the integral can be easily evaluated and the final answer is pi/4.
  • #1
Markjdb
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Homework Statement


Find the integral from 0 to pi/2 of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)).


The Attempt at a Solution



You can easily make it into the integral of tan(x)dx/(1+tan(x)), but the substitution u=tanx can't work because tan(pi/2) is undefined. Any ideas for a good substitution?
 
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  • #2
Use the identity for definite integrals:

[tex]
\int_a^b f(x)dx = \int_a^b f((a + b) - x)dx
[/tex]

and the trignometric identity:

[tex]
\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right) = \cos(x)
[/tex][tex]
\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right) = \sin(x)
[/tex]
 
Last edited:
  • #3
Where did that identity come from? When does it apply? It doesn't hold for f(x) = x for example.

As for the original integral, it's a little tricky and you have to express it in a special form to arrive at the answer.

[tex]\frac{sin (x)}{sin (x) + cos (x)} = \frac{1}{2} \ \frac{sin (x) + cos (x) - (cos (x) - sin (x)}{sin (x) + cos (x)} = \frac{1}{2} \left(1 - \frac{cos(x) - sin(x)}{sin(x)+cos(x)} \right)[/tex]

The rightmost expression can be easily integrated.
 
  • #4
Defennder said:
Where did that identity come from?

Are you kidding me?? The identity is very well valid:

http://img124.imageshack.us/img124/1265/integralabproof1zs8.jpg

Defennder said:
When does it apply?

It applies for any function f(x)

Defennder said:
It doesn't hold for f(x) = x for example.

really??

[tex]\int_a^b xdx = \frac{x^2}{2}|_a^b = \frac{b^2}{2} - \frac{a^2}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\int_a^b (a + b - x)dx = ax|_a^b + bx|_a^b - \frac{x^2}{2}\left|_a^b[/tex]

[tex]~ =~ a(b - a)~ +~ b(b - a)~ +~ \frac{b^2}{2}~ -~ \frac{a^2}{2}~ = ~ab~ -~ a^2~ + ~b^2~ - ab~ + ~\frac{a^2}{2}~ -~ \frac{b^2}{2}[/tex]

[tex] = \frac{b^2}{2} - \frac{a^2}{2}[/tex]

even mathematica agrees with me:

http://img140.imageshack.us/img140/5850/integralabproof2fb8.jpg
 
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  • #5
My mistake, I was mentally exhausted when I chanced upon this earlier. But I don't see how this could help evaluate the integral. After applying the transformation, you're left with the same function as before, except this time the top trigo function is cos x.
 
  • #6
Defennder said:
My mistake, I was mentally exhausted when I chanced upon this earlier.

That's all right.. happens with all of us :D

Defennder said:
But I don't see how this could help evaluate the integral. After applying the transformation, you're left with the same function as before, except this time the top trigo function is cos x.

The question given above is a VERY common illustration of the above mentioned identity. Let the required integral be 'I'. Then,

[tex]
I = \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{\sin(x)}{\sin(x) + \cos(x)}dx
[/tex]

(eqn. 1)

[tex]
I = \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right)}{\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right) + \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right)}dx = \frac{\cos(x)}{\sin(x) + \cos(x)}dx
[/tex]

(eqn. 2)

adding both of them together,

[tex]
2I = \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{\sin(x) + \cos(x)}{\sin(x) + \cos(x)}dx = \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2} dx = \frac{\pi}{2}
[/tex]

and hence,

[tex]
I = \frac{\pi}{4}
[/tex]
 
  • #7
That was very slick Rohan!
 
  • #8
That's something I never did think of. Quite novel indeed.
 
  • #9
Much nicer than the identity

[tex]\sin x = \frac 1 2 \bigl((\cos x + \sin x) - (\cos x - \sin x)\bigr)[/tex]

from which

[tex]\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\sin x}{\cos x + \sin x}\,dx
= \frac 1 2 \bigl(x - \ln(\cos x + \sin x)\bigr)\Bigl|_0^{\pi/2} = \frac {\pi} 4[/tex]
 
  • #10
D H said:
Much nicer than the identity

[tex]\sin x = \frac 1 2 \bigl((\cos x + \sin x) - (\cos x - \sin x)\bigr)[/tex][/tex]

which is what Defennder already suggested... and what makes this much nicer??
 
  • #11
Sorry, my post was too short. Your technique is much nice.
 

1. What is the formula for calculating the integral of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) from 0 to pi/2?

The formula for calculating the integral of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) from 0 to pi/2 is:
∫sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) = ln(cos(x)+sin(x)) + C

2. How do you solve the integral of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) from 0 to pi/2?

To solve the integral of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) from 0 to pi/2, we first use the substitution method by letting u = cos(x) + sin(x). Then, we can rewrite the integral as ∫du/u = ln(u) + C. Substituting back in u = cos(x) + sin(x), we get the final solution of ln(cos(x)+sin(x)) + C.

3. Is there an easy way to remember the formula for the integral of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) from 0 to pi/2?

Yes, there is a mnemonic device to help remember the formula:
"Low D high minus high D low, over low low, that's the rule you should know."
This means that the integral of the quotient of two functions is equal to the natural log of the denominator minus the natural log of the numerator, over the denominator multiplied by the derivative of the denominator.

4. Why is the integral of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) from 0 to pi/2 considered a challenging problem?

The integral of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) from 0 to pi/2 is considered a challenging problem because it requires a combination of substitution and integration by parts. It also involves working with trigonometric functions and their derivatives, which can be complex and require careful manipulation.

5. What is the geometric interpretation of the integral of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) from 0 to pi/2?

The geometric interpretation of the integral of sin(x)dx/(cos(x)+sin(x)) from 0 to pi/2 is the area under the curve of the function from 0 to pi/2. This area represents the net change of the function over the given interval. In this case, it represents the net change of the ratio between sine and cosine from 0 to pi/2.

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