True or False- Functions and Continuity

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves determining the truth of a statement regarding a continuous function f(x) defined on the interval [0,1], specifically whether there exists an x in this interval such that f(x) = x, given that 0 ≤ f(x) ≤ 1 for all x in [0,1].

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of continuity and the constraints on the function's values. Some suggest considering specific functions as counterexamples, while others explore the geometric interpretation of the problem. The concept of the Intermediate Value Theorem is introduced as a potential method to demonstrate the existence of a solution.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring various interpretations and approaches. Hints have been provided regarding the use of the function g(x) = f(x) - x and its continuity, but no consensus has been reached on the validity of specific arguments or the application of the Intermediate Value Theorem.

Contextual Notes

Participants are self-studying calculus and are navigating through the complexities of continuity, function behavior, and theorems related to real-valued functions. There is some confusion regarding the implications of specific values of g(0) and g(1), as well as the application of the Intermediate Value Theorem.

Justabeginner
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Homework Statement


True or False. If f(x) is continuous and 0≤ f(x) ≤ 1 for all x in the interval [0,1] then for some number, x, f(x)= x. Explain your answer.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



False. I think that even though 0 and 1 are included in the domain, it is possible for the x and y values NOT to coincide.
(I googled zig zag function, because I didn't know the name, and I found the 'Weierstrass' function. I thought this would be an acceptable counterexample?)

Thank you.
 
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Would this satisfy: f(x) = x+1 ?
 
No it wouldn't. This is a one-to-one function.
 
dirk_mec1 said:
Would this satisfy: f(x) = x+1 ?

Justabeginner said:
No it wouldn't. This is a one-to-one function.
Justabeginner, your answer is correct, but the reason isn't. f(x) = x + 1 is one-to-one, but so what? This function doesn't satisfy the requirement that 0 ≤ f(x) ≤ 1 for all x in the interval [0, 1].

For any function that satisfies the problem requirements, is it possible for the graph to NOT intersect the line y = x?
 
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Draw a picture! The function's graph lies in the box [0,1]x[0,1]. The line y=x cuts that box in half. The points (0,f(0)) and (1,f(1)) are located where on that box?
 
They are the left lower and right upper vertices of the box.

And I think it is possible for the function to NOT intersect with the line y=x.
 
Justabeginner said:
They are the left lower and right upper vertices of the box.

And I think it is possible for the function to NOT intersect with the line y=x.


No, those are the points (0,0) and (1,1), not (0,f(0)) and (1,f(1)) in general.

Also your two sentences are contradictory. If f(0) = 0, then the graph does intersect the line y=x and the origin
 
@justabeginner I am curious to know whether these questions you are posting are from a class you are taking or from self studying.
 
LCKurtz said:
@justabeginner I am curious to know whether these questions you are posting are from a class you are taking or from self studying.
In another thread he (she?) said this was self-study. From the questions asked, he/she is doing differential and integral calculus at the same time, which is not a good idea, IMO.
 
  • #10
Hint: Consider the function g defined by [itex]g(x)=f(x)-x[/itex]. Note that by the constraint [itex]0 \leq f(x) \leq 1[/itex], [itex]0 \leq g(0) \leq 1[/itex] and that [itex]-1 \leq g(1) \leq 0[/itex]. How can you use this along with g's continuity to show that [itex]g[/itex] has a zero in [itex][0,1][/itex]?
 
  • #11
Here's a hint: consider the function ##g(x) = f(x) - x## for ##x \in [0,1]##. Is ##g## continuous, and what can you say about ##g(0)## and ##g(1)##?

oops...sorry HS-Scientist for pretty much repeating your hint.
 
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  • #12
As is usual on PF, the hints escalate until soon the problem will be completely worked.
 
  • #13
(I was out on the road all day,so I am SO sorry about not responding to these posts till now).

LCKurtz- I'm self-teaching myself Calculus AB and BC, and am just using a textbook, and doing everything in order. The problems that I post are the problems I have difficulty with or want to have my logic checked over to make sure I'm developing the right technique to solve the problem. So I guess that's what it is.

HS-Scientist and YawningDog27: I do think g(x) would be continuous along this interval, and that the zero in [0, 1] would be a relative minimum? Thank you.
 
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  • #14
Justabeginner said:
HS-Scientist and YawningDog27: I do think g(x) would be continuous along this interval, and that the zero in [0, 1] would be a relative minimum? Thank you.
Why would the zero of g be a relative min and how is that relevant to the problem? We introduced the function g because showing that it has a zero in [0,1] is equivalent to showing that f(x)=x for some x in [0,1].
 
  • #15
So I was thinking about this problem and I think I might've got something.

Using the Intermediate Value Theorem, you can conclude that for this continuous function g, on the intervals, [a, b] and [c,d ], for any z, there exists a c such that f(c)= z. If the function f is defined on the interval [0, 1] and g(x)= f(x) - x, then g can be valid on the interval [0, 1] and [-1, 1].

g(1) = f(1)- 1 and g(0) = f(0). Then g(0)= g(1) This means that there is a zero between g(0) and g(1) and on the interval [0, 1] g(c)= z= 0. And since g(x) = f(x)- x, f(x) - x= 0 and f(x)= x.

Is this logic correct? Thank you so much.
 
  • #16
Justabeginner said:
So I was thinking about this problem and I think I might've got something.

Using the Intermediate Value Theorem, you can conclude that for this continuous function g, on the intervals, [a, b] and [c,d ], for any z, there exists a c such that f(c)= z.
I don't think this is what you meant to say. What are these intervals [a,b] and [c,d]? And ANY z?
If the function f is defined on the interval [0, 1] and g(x)= f(x) - x, then g can be valid on the interval [0, 1] and [-1, 1].
What do you mean by valid? Do you mean that g can only take on values in [-1,1] (as in the sense of my above post)?
g(1) = f(1)- 1 and g(0) = f(0).
ok
Then g(0)= g(1)
Why?

This means that there is a zero between g(0) and g(1) and on the interval [0, 1] g(c)= z= 0.
Even assuming that g(1) and g(0) were equal (they're not in general), how does this follow?
And since g(x) = f(x)- x, f(x) - x= 0 and f(x)= x.
Yes, that is why a zero of g corresponds to a point where f(x)=x.

Is this logic correct? Thank you so much.
 
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  • #17
The two intervals [a,b] and [c,d] are the intervals that are prescribed by the Intermediate Value Theorem? :S

Yes, I mean they can take on the values within that interval.

Because f(x)= x?

And I thought that this inference could be supplied by the same reason that f(x)= x.
 
  • #18
Justabeginner said:
The two intervals [a,b] and [c,d] are the intervals that are prescribed by the Intermediate Value Theorem? :S

Yes, I mean they can take on the values within that interval.

Because f(x)= x?

And I thought that this inference could be supplied by the same reason that f(x)= x.

Why does f(x)=x?

Also, state the intermediate value theorem clearly and how you are using it.
 
  • #19
f(x)= x, because g(x)= f(x) - x, and g(x)= 0.

I think that the Intermediate Value Theorem states that for the function, f(x), which is continuous on the interval [a,b], and there exists a value Z between f(a) and f(b)- there must be at least one value Z within [a, b] such that f(c)= Z? In this problem, I'm using the Intermediate Value Theorem to prove that such a value exists between f(a) and f(b).
 
  • #20
Justabeginner said:
f(x)= x, because g(x)= f(x) - x, and g(x)= 0.

Why is g(x)=0?
 
  • #21
g(0)=0, or at least that's what I (incorrectly?) presumed.
 
  • #22
Yes, I don't see why that should be true. If it were then the problem would be trivial. g(0)=0 means that f(0)=0, solving the problem immediately with no need for the intermediate value theorem or any such technique. But even if g(0) was 0, how does g(1)=0 follow?
 
  • #23
Oh alright. I will omit that then. Thank you so much HS-Scientist.
 
  • #24
No problem, glad to help. Posts 10 and 11 give you nearly a complete solution. See if you can finish it from there.
 

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