zezima1
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Is ∫eiωtdω = √(2\pi) (from -∞ to ∞)
It should be so if my books derivation of the Fourier transform is correct, but they don't really explain why the above equality is correct?
can anyone show me how they get to that result for that integral or does anyone perhaps have a good link?
It should be so if my books derivation of the Fourier transform is correct, but they don't really explain why the above equality is correct?
can anyone show me how they get to that result for that integral or does anyone perhaps have a good link?