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- I'm working an exercise where I'm supposed to prove that the reduced row echelon form (rref) of a matrix is unique as a corollary to a certain theorem. I will say that I have modified some of the arguments below from other sources. However, I'm a bit unsure if I'm ultimately doing it right, since I have not seen aspects of the proof elsewhere.
The theorem reads as follows:
Proof. The proof is by induction on the number of columns of an ##m\times n## matrix ##A##. The base case is kind of clear (either the rref is the ##0## vector or ##e_1##). Suppose now that the rref of a matrix with ##k## columns is unique and consider ##A## with ##k+1## columns, say ##u_1,u_2,\ldots,u_{k+1}##. Let ##A'## be the matrix by deleting the final column of ##A##, that is ##A=(A'\mid u_{k+1})##. If ##(B'\mid b)## is a rref of ##A##, we know that ##B'## is a rref of ##A'##. And ##B'## is unique by the induction hypothesis. Now I'm a bit unsure of what to show next, but I proceed by showing ##b'## is unique. The set of pivotal columns ##P'## of ##B'## is also unique and corresponds to a maximal linearly independent subset of ##\{u_1,u_2,\ldots,u_k\}## by Theorem 3.16(c).
If ##P'\cup\{b\}## is linearly independent, this means $$\operatorname{rank}(A)=\operatorname{rank}(A')+1.$$Say this number equals ##r##. According to Theorem 3.16(b), ##b## is the only column which can be ##e_r## (for otherwise ##r-1=\operatorname{rank}(A')\geq r##). In this case we conclude that ##(B'\mid b)## is unique since ##b## can not be anything other than ##e_r##.
If ##P'\cup\{b\}## is linearly dependent, then ##b## is not a pivotal column of ##(B'\mid b)##; otherwise ##P'\cup\{b\}## is the set of pivotal columns of ##(B'\mid b)##, which is linearly independent. This means ##b## has a unique representation with respect to the set ##P'## (since they form a basis of the column space by Theorem 3.16(b)), say ##b=d_1e_1+d_2e_2+\cdots d_re_r##, where ##r=\operatorname{rank}(B'\mid b)##. So there can not be any other representation of ##b##, and we conclude ##(B'\mid b)## is unique. This concludes the proof. ##\blacksquare##
It's important to me that I'm staying true to the exercise, i.e. proving it as a corollary to the theorem. But I'm doubting what I'm doing in the induction step. I'm not really sure what I'm showing with ##b##. I have seen other proofs that assume there are two rrefs of ##A## and then show that these rrefs equal. I feel like I accomplish something similar, though I'm not using any contradiction, which I've seen in the other proofs I've looked at.
I appreciate any feedback. Can you follow the proof? Is it correct?
Theorem. Let ##A## be an ##m\times n## matrix of rank ##r##, where ##r>0##, and let ##B## be the rref of ##A##. Then
(a) The number of nonzero rows of ##B## is ##r##.
(b) For each ##i=1,2,\ldots,r##, there is a column ##b_{j_i}## of ##B## such that ##b_{j_i}=e_i##.
(c) The columns of ##A## numbered ##j_1,j_2,\ldots,j_r## are linearly independent.
(d) For each ##k=1,2,\ldots,n##, if column ##k## of ##B## is ##d_1e_1+d_2e_2+\cdots+d_re_r##, then column ##k## of ##A## is ##d_1a_{j_1}+d_2a_{j_2}+\cdots+d_ra_{j_r}##, where ##a_{j_i}## is the column of ##A## corresponding to ##b_{j_i}## of ##B##.
Corollary. The rref of a matrix is unique.
Proof. The proof is by induction on the number of columns of an ##m\times n## matrix ##A##. The base case is kind of clear (either the rref is the ##0## vector or ##e_1##). Suppose now that the rref of a matrix with ##k## columns is unique and consider ##A## with ##k+1## columns, say ##u_1,u_2,\ldots,u_{k+1}##. Let ##A'## be the matrix by deleting the final column of ##A##, that is ##A=(A'\mid u_{k+1})##. If ##(B'\mid b)## is a rref of ##A##, we know that ##B'## is a rref of ##A'##. And ##B'## is unique by the induction hypothesis. Now I'm a bit unsure of what to show next, but I proceed by showing ##b'## is unique. The set of pivotal columns ##P'## of ##B'## is also unique and corresponds to a maximal linearly independent subset of ##\{u_1,u_2,\ldots,u_k\}## by Theorem 3.16(c).
If ##P'\cup\{b\}## is linearly independent, this means $$\operatorname{rank}(A)=\operatorname{rank}(A')+1.$$Say this number equals ##r##. According to Theorem 3.16(b), ##b## is the only column which can be ##e_r## (for otherwise ##r-1=\operatorname{rank}(A')\geq r##). In this case we conclude that ##(B'\mid b)## is unique since ##b## can not be anything other than ##e_r##.
If ##P'\cup\{b\}## is linearly dependent, then ##b## is not a pivotal column of ##(B'\mid b)##; otherwise ##P'\cup\{b\}## is the set of pivotal columns of ##(B'\mid b)##, which is linearly independent. This means ##b## has a unique representation with respect to the set ##P'## (since they form a basis of the column space by Theorem 3.16(b)), say ##b=d_1e_1+d_2e_2+\cdots d_re_r##, where ##r=\operatorname{rank}(B'\mid b)##. So there can not be any other representation of ##b##, and we conclude ##(B'\mid b)## is unique. This concludes the proof. ##\blacksquare##
It's important to me that I'm staying true to the exercise, i.e. proving it as a corollary to the theorem. But I'm doubting what I'm doing in the induction step. I'm not really sure what I'm showing with ##b##. I have seen other proofs that assume there are two rrefs of ##A## and then show that these rrefs equal. I feel like I accomplish something similar, though I'm not using any contradiction, which I've seen in the other proofs I've looked at.
I appreciate any feedback. Can you follow the proof? Is it correct?