Verifying the integral of a dirac delta function

aftershock
Messages
106
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



I'll post it as an image since the notation will be tricky to type out. It's problem 4.

http://img29.imageshack.us/img29/1228/307hw3.jpg

Homework Equations



Not sure this really applies here

The Attempt at a Solution



This is for a physics course but as you can see it's pretty much math. If you think it'd do better in a math section please feel free to move it.

Without really doing much math I considered the integral from -infinity to where the function is not zero, the integral in the region where it's not zero, and the integral from where it starts to be zero again to infinity. Adding them together should give me the total integral. The zero area multiplied by f(x) should still be zero (I think, right?). Therefore the only integral of concern is where the dirac function is not zero.

Now what I think it's saying is that this integral should be the same as just evaluating f(x) at zero? If that's true I'm not really sure how to do it.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
aftershock said:
Without really doing much math I considered the integral from -infinity to where the function is not zero, the integral in the region where it's not zero, and the integral from where it starts to be zero again to infinity. Adding them together should give me the total integral. The zero area multiplied by f(x) should still be zero (I think, right?). Therefore the only integral of concern is where the dirac function is not zero.
That's correct.
So
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \mathrm dx \, \delta_n(x) f(x) = \int_{-1/(2n)}^{1/(2n)} \mathrm dx \, \delta_n(x) f(x)
and the rest drops out.

aftershock said:
Now what I think it's saying is that this integral should be the same as just evaluating f(x) at zero? If that's true I'm not really sure how to do it.
Yep. You will encounter the Dirac "function" in a lot of places when you go and do physics. It doesn't really mean anything outside of an integral sign (although people use it like it does) and has the property that
\int_{-\infty}^\infty \mathrm dx \, \delta(x - a) f(x) = f(a)
It is usually represented as an "infinite spike" at x = a, most of the time it represents some particle or source which is localised (i.e. point-like).

I'm not sure what level of math you are at, but you could try Riemann sums or Taylor expansions, if those things mean anything to you.
 
Last edited:
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top