jdstokes
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Suppose I couple a fermion field to a scalar field using \mathrm{i} g \bar{\psi}\psi \varphi and \mathrm{i} g \bar{\psi}\gamma_5\psi\varphi.
I'm trying to understand what would be the physical difference between these interactions. I know that (1/2)(1\pm \gamma_5) approximately projects out the left and right handed components of Dirac fields and that this is related to the fact that the weak interaction couples preferentially to left-handed particles and right-handed anti-particles, but other than that I'm pretty clueless.
I'm trying to understand what would be the physical difference between these interactions. I know that (1/2)(1\pm \gamma_5) approximately projects out the left and right handed components of Dirac fields and that this is related to the fact that the weak interaction couples preferentially to left-handed particles and right-handed anti-particles, but other than that I'm pretty clueless.
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